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Exam Code: 630-006
Exam Name: ISM (C.P.M. Module 2: Supply Environment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 285 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 With which of the following would purchasing management be MOST concerned in day-to-day
operational control in a manufacturing firm?
A. labor utilization variance
B. materials utilization variance
C. labor cost variance
D. materials cost variance
Answer: D

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NO.2 With regard to decision-making capability of cross-functional sourcing teams which of the following is
TRUE?
A. Better decisions than individuals.
B. Quick decisions than individuals.
C. Requiring the input of suppliers.
D. Poor substitute for individual decisions.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement about setting negotiating objectives is FALSE?
A. It should be defined with sufficient specificity to permit measurements.
B. It should be established for each issue or condition to be negotiated.
C. They should establish a supplier's strengths and avoid reference to its weaknesses.
D. It should be based on databases derived from cooperative efforts of purchasing,
production, and engineering.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following terms is NOT associated with the Internet?
A. Browsers
B. Home pages
C. Web sites
D. Time sharing
Answer: D

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NO.5 Choose two of the following options that are usually amongst the functions of the material manager of?
(Choose two)
A. Stores and receiving
B. Quality control
C. Traffic management
D. Accounts payable
Answer: A, C

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NO.6 You work as a buyer at KillTest .com. You are curious about the disadvantaged ownership of one of the
companies that supply materials for KillTest .com. When, if ever, can you ask the supplier for this
information?
A. At any time
B. Only when the buyer is purposefully seeking a minority supplier
C. Only when authorized by the courts
D. At no time
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following options are key actions that senior management should take into account when
establishing a purchasing department?
A. Select a purchasing system
B. Develop list of suppliers
C. Hire qualified buyers
D. Establish a policies authorizing purchasing authority
Answer: D

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NO.8 If a supplier's level of quality was unsatisfactory on past orders and the level of quality on current
orders is critical, which of the following options would be the BEST way to handle the situation?
A. Timely inspection by the buyer's company at the supplier's plant
B. Requiring the supplier to supply extra products to cover rejects
C. Require 100% inspection before the products leave the warehouse of the order by the buyer's
company's quality control department
D. Label "Quality of Material is Critical" on the purchase order
Answer: A

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NO.9 When developing a new product with a supplier, which of the following documents protects a company
from information leaks?
A. Copyright
B. Patent
C. Supplier partnership
D. Confidentiality agreement
Answer: D

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NO.10 If a purchasing manager is represented by buying an organization in a meeting with a governmental
body. The manager could possibly embark in the following:
A. explaining the organization's new MRP system
B. promoting the business to other participants
C. negotiating for the buying organization
D. discussing the advantages and disadvantages of various types of contractual arrangements
Answer: C

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NO.11 You work as a buyer at KillTest .com. A piece of capital equipment is designed and specified so as to
force the purchasing department into a sole supplier situation. You still want to affect the procurement
process. Which of the following support items from the sole supplier would you negotiate? (Choose all
that apply)
A. Technical documentation, including data sheets, performance specs, maintenance and operating
manuals, supplier-furnished training programs, and full supplier documentation
B. The initial provisioning of high-risk spare parts for start-up and a one-year period thereafter
C. A promise to maintain equipment on an annual basis by the manufacturer or its authorized service
agent
D. A determination of whether equipment or services are taxable or tax-exempt
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.12 Which of the following procedures for dealing with businesses that have social or economical
disadvantages, if a purchasing manager considers: (Choose all that apply)
A. That the staff of such businesses may have had limited exposure to technical contract language
B. That exceptions may be needed to accommodate faster payment of invoices from such businesses
C. That goods or services of lower than usual quality may be accepted from such businesses
D. That such businesses may need information on the bidding process
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.13 Which of the following tools are MOST important for achieving continuous improvements in an
organization's integration with its supplier?
A. Quality inspection at the plant
B. Involvement in product design
C. Suppliers input in forms design
D. Joint examination of costs structure
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following factors are causing growth in complexity of much procurements leading to an
increased trend towards:
A. suppliers partnering
B. cross-functional teams
C. risk factor management
D. strategic supplier alliances
Answer: B

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NO.15 If a manufacturer establishes all the population needed for a round-bar machining process being 5.76
centimeters, with a standard deviation of 15. The acceptable quality limits are estimated at about 3
standard deviations. On day one, the sample means are taken by the operator, 5.80, 5.46, and 6.20
centimeters. These means indicate if the process is
A. controlled
B. reckless
C. statistically perfect
D. leaning towards the lower side of the mean
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following approaches focuses on cooperative rather than adversarial relationships with
suppliers?
A. single sourcing
B. cross-functional teams
C. supply base management
D. supplier partnerships
Answer: D

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NO.17 In a situation where the purchasing and production departments share responsibility for product
fabrication, lead time for delivery of material, work schedules, and selection of sources of supply. Which
responsibilities would be allocated to the production department? (Choose two.)
A. product fabrication
B. lead time for delivery of material
C. work schedules
D. selection of sources of supply
Answer: A, C

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NO.18 Which software type is BEST applicable when using in the analysis of a competitive bid?
A. Application
B. Interface
C. Scientific
D. Operating system
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following phrases are used to refer to the receipt of a functional acknowledgment after
sending a purchase order via EDI?
A. transmission received B. accepted purchase order
C. valid contract exists D. goods have been shipped
Answer: A

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NO.20 .Which of the following BEST defines negotiations?
A. reaching an agreement through discussion
B. maximizing one's position over one's opponent
C. reaching an agreement through competitive bidding
D. ensuring that the terms and conditions of a contract are met
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 630-007
Exam Name: ISM (C.P.M. Module 3: Value Enhancement Strategies)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 285 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following is the MOST commonly sought-after piece of inventory
information?
A. The date the inventory is taken.
B. The current price of the items.
C. Inventory I.D. numbers.
D. Quantities.
Answer. D

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NO.2 Which of the following is the FIRST step in standardization?
A. Collecting data.
B. Simplifying standards.
C. Establishing objectives.
D. Publicizing the program.
Answer. A

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NO.3 Which of the following are the two basic categories of costs associated with
inventories from a management point of view?
A. Supplies and services costs.
B. Storage and incremental costs.
C. Carrying costs and acquisition costs.
D. Obsolescence and deterioration costs.
Answer. C

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NO.4 Which of the following BEST describes the difference between evaluation of a
product and value analysis?
A. Value analysis is more concerned with "make-or-buy" issues.
B. Evaluation of a product is more concerned with cost issues.
C. Value analysis focuses more on economy and efficiency.
D. Value analysis is more concerned with product liability.
Answer. C

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NO.5 When would a purchasing manager generally use a third-party lease as a financing
instrument?
A. When purchasing equipment from the manufacturer with someone else's money.
B. When acquiring equipment from one party and maintenance from another.
C. When arranging an assignment agreement with a bank.
D. When transferring the asset to the internal customer.
Answer. A

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NO.6 KillTest has been experiencing numerous stockouts on a production item.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause this problem?
A. Faulty sales forecasts.
B. Incorrect order points.
C. Increased supplier prices.
D. Problems with incoming shipments.
Answer. C

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NO.7 What is generally the PRIMARY motivation for outsourcing in the health care
sector?
A. To reduce technological risk.
B. To shift patient liability.
C. To reduce labor costs.
D. To implement JIT.
Answer. C

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NO.8 Which of the following do NOT provide economic forecasts?
A. ISM Report On Business(r).
B. Bureau of Labor Statistics.
C. Department of Commerce.
D. Thomas Register.
Answer. D

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NO.9 Which of the following should a purchaser utilize when there is a need to minimize
financial risk in a sensitive market?
A. Cash flow management.
B. Long-term relationships.
C. Market demand analysis.
D. Hedging using futures contracts.
Answer. D

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NO.10 You work as a purchaser at KillTest. You are negotiating a contract for which
production and delivery will be stretched out over a 24-month period. You want to
get the best price. Which of the following should you include in the contract?
A. A provision to accept all material produced under the contract.
B. A provision to cover changes in rates for material and labor.
C. A provision to eliminate penalties for late deliveries.
D. A provision to cover unforeseen production delays.
Answer. B

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NO.11 Which of the following can be used to spot abnormalities in a process, as well as
compare actual measurements to customer or engineering specifications, and show
if a distribution is centered at an expected place?
A. Pareto charts.
B. Area graphs.
C. Histograms.
D. Pie graphs.
Answer. C

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NO.12 Which of the following criteria would a project or process targeted for improvement
generally NOT meet?
A. It is in the process of change.
B. It is relevant to a key product or service issue.
C. It is within the control or influence of the team.
D. It is likely to contribute to organizational goals.
Answer. A

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NO.13 Which of the following favors making the part in a "make-or-buy" decision?
A. When design secrecy is required.
B. When volume requirements are small.
C. When production facilities are limited.
D. When there is a desire to maintain a multiple-source policy.
Answer. A

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NO.14 Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. An operational lease has a non-cancelable term varying from hours to years.
B. An operational lease is a total financial commitment by the lessor.
C. In operational leases, payments are fixed payments per period.
D. Operational leases stress service.
Answer. B

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NO.15 Which of the following should generally make a "make-or-buy" decision?
A. Engineering Management.
B. Purchasing Management.
C. Production Management.
D. General Management.
Answer. D

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NO.16 When is the timing of purchases MOST important?
A. When a market has price and supply stability.
B. When a market has price and supply instability.
C. When a market has unstable supply with predictable prices.
D. When a market has reasonably stable supply with substantial fluctuation in prices.
Answer. C

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NO.17 Which of the following is NOT an appropriate consideration when seeking to
mitigate seasonal capacity issues?
A. Safety stock levels.
B. Transportation costs.
C. Forecasting accuracy.
D. Seasonal sales forecasts.
Answer. B

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NO.18 Which of the following represents the MOST common reason for a public or
nonprofit corporation to use lease/purchase agreements to obtain equipment?
A. To gain tax advantages.
B. To avoid capital expenditures.
C. To reduce maintenance needs.
D. To gain depreciation advantages.
Answer. B

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NO.19 Which of the following represents the MAIN reason why a fully documented
permanent summary record of a "make-or-buy" analysis should be maintained?
A. To respond to charges of favoritism by unsuccessful bidders.
B. To serve as a useful source of information in future situations.
C. To support cost-of-goods-sold (CGS) figures for tax purposes.
D. To justify the participation of all departments that were involved in the analysis.
Answer. C

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NO.20 Which of the following represents the BEST strategy for minimizing price risk in a
falling market?
A. Hedging.
B. Forward buying.
C. Hand-to-mouth buying.
D. Buying to requirements.
Answer. C

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Exam Code: CPSM
Exam Name: ISM (Certified Professional in Supply Management (CPSM))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service is called:
A. Project
B. Build
C. Enterprise
D. Development
Answer: A

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NO.2 Contract statement of work is the output of which process group?
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Monitoring
D. Closing
Answer: A

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NO.3 According to Project Management Institute, which of the following is NOT the process group
of project?
Initiating
B. Organizing
C. Executing
D. Closing
Answer: B

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NO.4 Organizations less familiar with the discipline of project management usually begin by creating
task forces or committees within each role to tackle problem, known as:
A. Procurement Management
B. Functional structure
C. Procedural structure
D. Performance Management
Answer: B

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NO.5 The process of coordinating the organization, planning, scheduling, controlling, monitoring
and evaluating of activities so that the objectives of a project are met is known as:
A. Project Life cycle
B. Project Executive
C. Project Management
D. Project Organization
Answer: C

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a) They support traceability of tests to source documents.
b) They provide an interface to test execution tools.
c) They help to enforce coding standards.
d) They manipulate databases and files to set up test data.
A. a and c
B. b and c
C. a and b
D. b and d
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is a purpose of the review kick off activity?
A. Explain the objectives
B. Select the personnel group
C. Document results
D. Define entry and exit criteria
Answer: A

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NO.3 Given the following state table:
Which of the following represents an INVALID transition (N)?
A. Off fromisplay Channel 1?
B. Channel 2 from Display Channel 1?
C. Stby from Live?
D. Channel 2 from Live?
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement about combinations of inputs and preconditions is true for a large system?
A. It is easy to test them all in a short time
B. It is not practically possible to test them all
C. It is not possible to test any of them
D. It is essential to test them all in order to do good testing
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is an example of a product risk?
A. Software that does not perform its intended functions
B. Failure of a third party
C. Problems in defining the right requirements
D. Skill and staff shortages
Answer: A

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NO.6 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.7 Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the User
log-on process. User log-on is a critical component of the system. The table below describes the four
defect reports submitted.
Which Tester has reported the incident MOST effectively, considering the information and priority they
have supplied?
A. Tester 3
B. Tester 1
C. Tester 2
D. Tester 4
Answer: D

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NO.8 In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up.
A. Test implementation and execution.
B. Test planning and control
C. Test analysis and design
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: A

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NO.9 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000
Answer: A

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NO.10 A system specification states that a particular field should accept alphabetical characters in either upper
or lower case.
Which of the following test cases is from an INVALID equivalence partition?
A. Feeds
B. F33ds
C. FEEDS
D. fEEDs
Answer: B

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NO.11 Given the following flow chart diagram:
What is the minimum number of test cases required for 100% statement coverage and 100% decision
coverage, respectively?
A. Statement Coverage = 1, Decision Coverage = 3.
B. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 3.
C. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 2.
D. Statement Coverage = 3, Decision Coverage = 3
Answer: C

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NO.12 The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100%
decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.
The following test cases have been run:
* Test Case 1 covering path A, B, D, G
* Test Case 2 covering path A, B, D, E, F, E, F, E, F, E, G
* Test Case 3 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?
A. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
B. Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.B.Statement coverage is less than
100%; decision coverage is 100%.
C. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%.C.Statement coverage is 100%;
decision coverage is less than 100%.
D. Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%.D.Statement coverage and
decision coverage are both less than 100%.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which one of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any lifecycle model?
A. Each test level has the same test objective.
B. There should be more testing activities than development activities.
C. Test design can only begin when development is complete.
D. Testers should begin to review documents as soon as drafts are available.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following are structure-based techniques?
a) Decision table testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Multiple condition coverage
d) Use case testing
e) Decision testing
A. a and c.
B. b and d.
C. b and e.
D. c and e.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a) Adapt planning based on test results.
b) Create test specifications.
c) Plan tests.
d) Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader; a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader; c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader; b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader; b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Given the following sample of pseudo code:
01.Input number of male rabbits
02 Input number of female rabbits
03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then
04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No
06 Print deep male and female rabbits apart
07 End if
08 End If.
Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement 6 is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = Yes
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = No
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = Yes
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = No
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which one of the following is true of software development models?
A. There are always four test levels in the V-model.
B. In a Rapid Application Development (RAD) project, there are four test levels for each iteration.
C. In Agile development models, the number of test levels for an iteration can vary depending on the
project.
D. There must be at least four test levels for any software development model.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Pair the correct test design techniques (i to v) with the category of techniques (x, y and z):
i) Exploratory Testing
ii) Equivalence Partitioning
iii)Decision Testing
iv)Use Case Testing
v) Condition coverage
x) Specification-based
y) Structure-based
z) Experienced-based
A. x =i and ii; y = iii and v; z = iv.
B. x =i, ii and iv; y = v; z = iii
C. x = ii and iv; y = iii and v; z = i.
D. x = iii and iv; y = v; z = i and ii.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a
testing tool?
A. Determine whether the organisation existing test process needs to change.
B. Conduct a proof of concept.
C. Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. d) Identify coaching and
mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool
D. a, b and c.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a) Stubs may be used.
b) May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c) Tests the interactions between software components.
d) Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of these is NOT an example of a Carbon Offsetting scheme?
A. Supplying new solar cookers in Indonesia.
B. Providing new for old car tyres in the United Kingdom.
C. Generating hydropower without dams in Fiji.
D. Making electricity from landfill in South Africa.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following actions make a PC more energy efficient?
A. Disabling stand-by settings.
B. Enabling active power management.
C. Enabling active screen savers.
D. Disabling CPU throttling features.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The Carbon Footprint comprises of both direct and indirect emissions.
Which of the following is an indirect emission?
A. Travelling to the office.
B. Opening a spreadsheet.
C. Disposing of a server.
D. Printing out a report.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are monitoring energy usage in the data centre. Which of the following techniques can you use?
a) Data aggregating.
b) Thermal profiling.
c) CPU throttling.
d) Server metering.
A. a and c only.
B. b and d only.
C. b and c only.
D. a and d only.
Answer: B

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NO.5 How much energy is used by monitor when displaying a PC screen saver?
A. The same as a standard office application.
B. Half the power of a standard office application.
C. One third the power of a standard office application.
D. Twice the power of a standard office application.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is the greatest business challenge facing data centres?
A. The shortened technology refresh cycles of suppliers.
B. The cost of next generation blade servers.
C. The ability to manage all data centres centrally.
D. The increase in data storage requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following describes Carbon Neutrality?
A. Eliminating CO2 emissions from product manufacture.
B. Maintaining CO2 emissions at a pre-defined agreed level.
C. Balancing CO2 emissions with an equivalent offset amount.
D. Matching CO2 emissions between defined business areas.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What should be achieved when setting the scope of an organisation's Green IT Policy.?
A. A definition of what goals are required for the project.
B. A definition of what resources are required for the project.
C. A definition of what people are required for the project.
D. A definition of what activities are required for the project.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following must be measured when calculating the annual energy consumption of a
server?
A. How long the server takes to shut down and reboot.
B. The amount of times the system is upgrading in a year.
C. The energy consumed in different modes of operation.
D. The operating temperature of the server during peak loads.
Answer: C

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NO.10 In which units are the results of a Carbon Footprint Calculation displayed?
A. Dollars.
B. Kilowatts.
C. Tonnes.
D. Litres.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following uses Greenhouse Gas conversion factors to work out CO2 emissions?
A. The ROCI Matrix.
B. The Emissions Reduction Flowchart.
C. The Carbon Footprint Calculator.
D. The Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is a Framework that can be used to implement Green IT systems?
A. The IT Infrastructure Library.
B. The Environmental Systems Method.
C. The Green Data Centre Toolkit.
D. The Custom Development Framework.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the first step that an organisation should take to improve its Green IT credentials?
A. Rationalise its Data Centre.
B. Review competitors' green policies.
C. Establish its Green IT policy.
D. Replace its old PCs.
Answer: C

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NO.14 How can you use a Continual Service Improvement Model as part of your green IT programme?
A. To ensure on-going monitoring and feedback through the programme lifecycle.
B. To ensure adequate technical support throughout the programme lifecycle.
C. To ensure agile application development to support the programme lifecycle.
D. To ensure senior management commitment throughout the programme lifecycle.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following is part of an organisation's direct Carbon Footprint?
A. Financial services.
B. Office refurbishment.
C. Corporate entertaining.
D. Business travel.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which document should be created to ensure the implementation of your Green IT policy?
A. The green development plan.
B. The green procurement policy.
C. The green IT action plan.
D. The green building plan.
Answer: C

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NO.17 A Green IT policy should be aligned to which other organizational policy?
a) Performance Management Policy.
b) Sustainability Policy.
c) Equal Opportunities Policy.
d) Environmental Policy.
A. b and d only.
B. a, b and d only.
C. b and c only.
D. b, c and d only.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following are reasons that Home Working can reduce your carbon footprint?
a) It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
b) It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
c) It reduces the space needed within the office.
d) It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
A. b and c only.
B. a and d only.
C. a and c only.
D. c and d only.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following is a Framework that can be used to implement Green IT systems?
A. The IT Infrastructure Library.
B. The Environmental Systems Method.
C. The Green Data Centre Toolkit.
D. The Custom Development Framework.
Answer: A

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NO.20 What action can you take to reduce the power consumption of your data centre?
A. Shut down servers out of business hours.
B. Replace small servers with larger ones.
C. Reallocate under-used servers to run active services.
D. Upgrade servers to always run the latest software.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CISSP-ISSMP
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NO.1 Which of the following is the process performed between organizations that have unique hardware or
software that cannot be maintained at a hot or warm site?
A. Cold sites arrangement
B. Business impact analysis
C. Duplicate processing facilities
D. Reciprocal agreements
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a
particular message?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Confidentiality
C. Authentication
D. Integrity
Answer: A

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NO.3 Mark works as a security manager for SoftTech Inc. He is involved in the BIA phase to create a
document to be used to help understand what impact a disruptive event would have on the business. The
impact might be financial or operational. Which of the following are the objectives related to the above
phase in which Mark is involved? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Resource requirements identification
B. Criticality prioritization
C. Down-time estimation
D. Performing vulnerability assessment
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Which of the following characteristics are described by the DIAP Information Readiness Assessment
function? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It performs vulnerability/threat analysis assessment.
B. It identifies and generates IA requirements.
C. It provides data needed to accurately assess IA readiness.
D. It provides for entry and storage of individual system data.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Which of the following types of activities can be audited for security? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose three.
A. Data downloading from the Internet
B. File and object access
C. Network logons and logoffs
D. Printer access
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 Which of the following protocols is used with a tunneling protocol to provide security?
A. FTP
B. IPX/SPX
C. IPSec
D. EAP
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following subphases are defined in the maintenance phase of the life cycle models?
A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Request control
D. Release control
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 Which of the following fields of management focuses on establishing and maintaining consistency of a
system's or product's performance and its functional and physical attributes with its requirements, design,
and operational information throughout its life?
A. Configuration management
B. Risk management
C. Procurement management
D. Change management
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following relies on a physical characteristic of the user to verify his identity?
A. Social Engineering
B. Kerberos v5
C. Biometrics
D. CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following penetration testing phases involves reconnaissance or data gathering?
A. Attack phase
B. Pre-attack phase
C. Post-attack phase
D. Out-attack phase
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following is NOT a valid maturity level of the Software Capability Maturity Model (CMM)?
A. Managed level
B. Defined level
C. Fundamental level
D. Repeatable level
Answer: C

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NO.12 You work as a Senior Marketing Manger for Umbrella Inc. You find out that some of the software
applications on the systems were malfunctioning and also you were not able to access your remote
desktop session. You suspected that some malicious attack was performed on the network of the
company. You immediately called the incident response team to handle the situation who enquired the
Network Administrator to acquire all relevant information regarding the malfunctioning. The Network
Administrator informed the incident response team that he was reviewing the security of the network
which caused all these problems. Incident response team announced that this was a controlled event not
an incident. Which of the following steps of an incident handling process was performed by the incident
response team?
A. Containment
B. Eradication
C. Preparation
D. Identification
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific
variances to assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of affairs?
A. Business continuity plan
B. Disaster recovery plan
C. Continuity of Operations Plan
D. Contingency plan
Answer: D

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NO.14 You work as a Network Administrator for ABC Inc. The company uses a secure wireless network. John
complains to you that his computer is not working properly. What type of security audit do you need to
conduct to resolve the problem?
A. Operational audit
B. Dependent audit
C. Non-operational audit
D. Independent audit
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following is the best method to stop vulnerability attacks on a Web server?
A. Using strong passwords
B. Configuring a firewall
C. Implementing the latest virus scanner
D. Installing service packs and updates
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following BCP teams is the first responder and deals with the immediate effects of the
disaster?
A. Emergency-management team
B. Damage-assessment team
C. Off-site storage team
D. Emergency action team
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following involves changing data prior to or during input to a computer in an effort to
commit fraud?
A. Data diddling
B. Wiretapping
C. Eavesdropping
D. Spoofing
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following security models dictates that subjects can only access objects through
applications?
A. Biba-Clark model
B. Bell-LaPadula
C. Clark-Wilson
D. Biba model
Answer: C

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NO.19 Joseph works as a Software Developer for Web Tech Inc. He wants to protect the algorithms and the
techniques of programming that he uses in developing an application. Which of the following laws are
used to protect a part of software?
A. Code Security law
B. Trademark laws
C. Copyright laws
D. Patent laws
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following are the ways of sending secure e-mail messages over the Internet.? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)
A. TLS
B. PGP
C. S/MIME
D. IPSec
Answer: B,C

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IBM 000-Z01 questions and answers

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Exam Code: 000-Z01
Exam Name: IBM (IBM System z System Programmer Mastery)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is the relationship of the Layered Network Models of TCP/IP, OSI, and SNA?
A.SNA is an internal construction in z/OS and does not allow for end points.
B.They are the same except that the OSI model inverts the layers top to bottom.
C.They have the same layers with the exact same functions in each layer, but the names are different.
D.The layers are conceptually similar but differ in name and details of what functions are in which layers.
Correct:D

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.2 What is this and how can it be executed?
A.It's a JCL procedure and cannot be executed.
B.It's a job and may be submitted with a SUBMIT command.
C.It's a JCL procedure and can be executed with a submit command.
D.It's a JCL procedure and must be invoked in a job with an EXEC statement.
Correct:D

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.3 Storage protect keys protect storage in conjunction with what other feature on the mainframe?
A.LPAR (Logical Partition)
B.ASM (Auxiliary Storage Manager)
C.APF (Authorized Program Facility)
D.PR/SM (Processor Resource / System Manager)
Correct:C

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.4 Which of the following z/OS data set organization is most like a UNIX directory?
A.VSAM RRDS
B.Sequential data set
C.Partitioned data set
D.VSAM Indexed data set
Correct:C

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.5 If a userid is ZTEST1, then what is entered in the Data Set List Utility (generally option 3.4) for
"Dsname Level" to list all data sets with the high level qualifier of the userid?
A.ZTEST1
B."ZTEST1"
C.*.ZTEST1*
D.'ZTEST1*'
Correct:A

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.6 In UNIX, the thread is the smallest element that performs work. What is an equivalent in z/OS?
A.Task
B.Daemon
C.TASKLIB
D.Process
Correct:A

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.7 Which of the following could be used to automatically establish communication between the
operating system and primary job entry subsystem during IPL?
A.JES
B.IODF
C.Master JCL procedure
D.Communications Server
Correct:C

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.8 ISPF uses various function keys. Which of the following describes the mapping of these keys?
A.Different in every ISPF menu
B.Determined by operating system
C.Fixed by ISPF and cannot be changed
D.May be changed using the ISPF SETTINGS function
Correct:D

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.9 What is the facility that allows mainframes to be partitioned into LPARs?
A.z/OS
B.PR/SM
C.Virtual Storage
D.Coupling Facility
Correct:B

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.10 Which of the following are the types of EDIT commands?
A.Menu and Line
B.Line and Data
C.Primary and Line
D.Primary and Secondary
Correct:C

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.11 The syntax: //INPUT DD * is used for what purpose?
A.To specify that this DDNAME refers to a null dataset
B.To specify that this DDNAME refers to the same dataset as the prior DD statement
C.To specify that the data is contained in the JCL stream immediately after this DD statement
D.To specify that the DDNAME refers to the same dataset as the DD statement with DDNAME of INPUT
in the prior job step
Correct:C

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.12 PC keyboards do not have a "PA1" key, 3270 emulators map some keys to "PA1". What is the
"PA1" key used for in TSO and ISPF?
A.Terminate the program currently running.
B.Terminate ISPF to return to the TSO READY prompt.
C.Pause a program so that data will not continue to scroll.
D.Clear the screen to allow the next screen of data to display.
Correct:A

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.13 In the ISPF Edit panel, there are fields named PROJECT, GROUP, TYPE, and MEMBER. What
information do these fields specify?
A.DSNAME
B.DDNAME
C.PARM field
D.DD Statement
Correct:A

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.14 If a data set with text information is created using ISPF edit, the dataset is copied to magnetic
tape, and the magnetic tape is then copied to a PC (e.g. Windows), what will a user see who
displays the file on the PC?
A.Clear text, but with punctuation corrupted
B.The exact same text as seen in ISPF on the mainframe
C.An odd mixture of unintelligible and unprintable characters
D.The results of the encryption used in every mainframe data set
Correct:C

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.15 A company runs a billing application for all its divisions on a single corporate system. However,
the data is separate for each division. The data sets for each division use a different high level
qualifier. What must change to run the billing application for one division versus another division?
A.The JCL must be changed to use the correct dataset names.
B.The program must be recompiled to change the DDNAMEs used.
C.The JCL must be changed to include the correct high level qualifier in the DDNAME.
D.The program must be recompiled in order to change the dataset names in the source code.
Correct:A

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.16 Which of the following is a major difference between hierarchical and relational DBMS?
A.Type of users with access
B.Navigational vs. non navigational
C.Concurrent vs. non concurrent multiple program access
D.Support for single vs. multiple application languages
Correct:B

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.17 Which of the following describes relative access speed for z9 major storage types?
A.Tape is faster than DASD
B.DASD is faster than cache
C.Real memory is faster than DASD
D.Optical storage is faster than cache
Correct:C

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.18 A mainframe customer wants to add a web site for customer orders. They plan to tightly couple
the web site to their existing back office z/OS applications. Which of the following describes an
effective implementation?
A.Bring in another System z machine
B.Implement a firewall on the mainframe and use WebSphere to enable the web site on a Linux server.
C.Implement a firewall on a new, small Unix server and use WebSphere to enable the web site on the
mainframe.
D.Implement a firewall on a new Windows XP server and use WebSphere to enable the web site on a new
Windows XP server.
Correct:C

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.19 What master catalog entry relates to the name of a user catalog?
A.HLQ
B.VVDS
C.ALIAS
D.Alternate index
Correct:C

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

NO.20 A list of stored TSO commands to perform a particular function is called which of the following?
A.CLIST
B.Compiled code
C.Executable code
D.Stored procedure
Correct:A

IBM   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01   000-Z01 test

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