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Exam Code: BH0-008
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Foundation Certificate in Green IT)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 What type of person is likely to benefit most from being set measurable targets within a Green IT
programme?
A. Someone who constantly belittles the team and its achievements.
B. Someone who believes it is too late for the project to make a difference.
C. Someone who is committed but wants to do everything at once.
D. Someone who only participates if it helps their career opportunities.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement best describes the purpose of a Green IT policy?
A. To ensure an organisation IT meets green legal requirements.To ensure an organisation? IT meets
green legal requirements.
B. To inform stakeholders of an organisation Green IT approach.To inform stakeholders of an organisation?
Green IT approach.
C. To allow an organisation to measure its Green IT performance.
D. To ensure Green IT is as important as other organisational initiatives.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following uses Greenhouse Gas conversion factors to work out CO2 emissions?
A. The ROCI Matrix.
B. The Emissions Reduction Flowchart.
C. The Carbon Footprint Calculator.
D. The Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following actions should an organisation take to help realise the marketing value of green
IT? a.Provide public disclosures of their environmental impact. b.Redefine their business strategy to
include green initiatives. c.Ensure all advertising focuses on its green message. d.Provide a green
discount across all of its product range.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. c and d.
D. a and b.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is a stakeholder in a Green IT programme? a.Government organisations.
b.Suppliers. c.Company shareholders. d.Employees. e.Religious organisations.
A. a, c, and e
B. a, b and c.
C. a, b c, and e.
D. a, b, c and d.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the best definition of a Carbon Footprint?
A. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted within a defined geographical area.
B. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by an organisation.
C. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by one person in one year.
D. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted minus the amount of carbon offsetting.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are monitoring energy usage in the Data Centre. What is the role of thermal profiling.
A. To identify hot spots and overcooling.
B. To identify which servers are performing efficiently.
C. To identify the timing of energy consumption peaks.
D. To identify which applications require the most energy.
Answer: A

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NO.8 How can IP Video Conferencing reduce your carbon footprint?
A. It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
B. It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
C. It reduces the number of rooms needed for meetings.
D. It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following is a benefit of adopting green IT within an organisation?
A. Creating a culture of team-based working.
B. Promoting a culture of maximum productivity.
C. Establishing a culture of total innovation.
D. Developing a culture of social responsibility.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following are risks to the success of a Green IT Programme? a.Alienation of key staff.
b.Additional unplanned costs. c.Perceived lack of benefits. d.Early delivery of benefits.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. b and d.
D. c and d.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EUCOC
Exam Name: ISEB (Intermediate Certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data centres )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which of the following BEST define the aims of the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres.?
a. To determine and accelerate the application of energy efficient technologies.
b. Develop practical voluntary commitments which when implemented improve the energy efficiency of
data centres and in so doing minimise the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
c. To develop and promote a set of easily understood metrics to measure the current efficiencies and
subsequent improvement.
d. To encourage the closure of data centres that are less energy efficient.
e. To ensure that the EU is visibly taking a lead in this important area of energy conservation.
A. a, b, c and d
B. d and e
C. a, b and c
D. e only
Answer: C

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NO.2 'Facility load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the following?
a. The UPS.
b. Lighting.
c. Air-conditioning units.
d. Monitors housed in racks.
e. Tape libraries
A. a, b, and c
B. a and d
C. b and c
D. d, and e
Answer: A

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NO.3 The numerical value associated with each Best Practice is shown for the following reason:
A. To allow operators to add up their total score in order that they can be compared with their competitors.
B. To allow the Code of Conduct administrators to properly assess each application.
C. To provide an independent scorecard for data centre owners.
D. To indicate the level of benefit from carrying out a Best Practice.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A facility's 'IT load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the
following?
a. The Power Distribution Units feeding the racks
b. Servers
c. Firewalls
d. Switches
e. Tape libraries
A. b, c. d and e
B. a, d and e
C. b and c
D. b. c and d
Answer: A

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NO.5 Why has the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres been developed?
a. Because data centres are using an increasing amount of power and they need to maximise their
efficiency to reduce their impact on the power infrastructure.
b. Because the power consumption of data centres across Europe as a whole needs to fall to meet
agreed C02 targets.
c. Because many data centres have outdated designs which focus on perceived reliability at the expense
of cost and energy efficiency.
d. Because the energy consumption of data centres has become a significant business cost.
e. Because the United States (US) has taken a significant lead in energy conservation and EU-based data
centres need a code of conduct to compete in a global marketplace.
A. a, b, c and d
B. a, c and d
C. b and e
D. e only
Answer: B

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Exam Code: BH0-008
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Foundation Certificate in Green IT)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-03

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NO.1 You are monitoring energy usage in the Data Centre. What is the role of thermal profiling.
A. To identify hot spots and overcooling.
B. To identify which servers are performing efficiently.
C. To identify the timing of energy consumption peaks.
D. To identify which applications require the most energy.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is a benefit of adopting green IT within an organisation?
A. Creating a culture of team-based working.
B. Promoting a culture of maximum productivity.
C. Establishing a culture of total innovation.
D. Developing a culture of social responsibility.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following uses Greenhouse Gas conversion factors to work out CO2 emissions?
A. The ROCI Matrix.
B. The Emissions Reduction Flowchart.
C. The Carbon Footprint Calculator.
D. The Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What type of person is likely to benefit most from being set measurable targets within a Green IT
programme?
A. Someone who constantly belittles the team and its achievements.
B. Someone who believes it is too late for the project to make a difference.
C. Someone who is committed but wants to do everything at once.
D. Someone who only participates if it helps their career opportunities.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following actions should an organisation take to help realise the marketing value of green
IT? a.Provide public disclosures of their environmental impact. b.Redefine their business strategy to
include green initiatives. c.Ensure all advertising focuses on its green message. d.Provide a green
discount across all of its product range.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. c and d.
D. a and b.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following are risks to the success of a Green IT Programme? a.Alienation of key staff.
b.Additional unplanned costs. c.Perceived lack of benefits. d.Early delivery of benefits.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. b and d.
D. c and d.
Answer: B

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NO.7 How can IP Video Conferencing reduce your carbon footprint?
A. It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
B. It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
C. It reduces the number of rooms needed for meetings.
D. It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the best definition of a Carbon Footprint?
A. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted within a defined geographical area.
B. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by an organisation.
C. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by one person in one year.
D. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted minus the amount of carbon offsetting.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which statement best describes the purpose of a Green IT policy?
A. To ensure an organisation IT meets green legal requirements.To ensure an organisation? IT meets
green legal requirements.
B. To inform stakeholders of an organisation Green IT approach.To inform stakeholders of an organisation?
Green IT approach.
C. To allow an organisation to measure its Green IT performance.
D. To ensure Green IT is as important as other organisational initiatives.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is a stakeholder in a Green IT programme? a.Government organisations.
b.Suppliers. c.Company shareholders. d.Employees. e.Religious organisations.
A. a, c, and e
B. a, b and c.
C. a, b c, and e.
D. a, b, c and d.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ISEB-SWT2
Exam Name: ISEB (ISTQB-ISEB Certified Tester Foundation Level)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-03

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a. Stubs may be used.
b. May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c. Tests the interactions between software components.
d. Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which one of the following statements about approaches to test estimation is true?
A. A metricsbased approach is based on data gathered from previous projects. an expertbased approach
uses the knowledge of the owner of the tasks or experts
B. A metricsbased approach is based on creating a workbreakdown structure first. an expertbased
approach is based on input from estimation experts
C. A metricsbased approach is based on data gathered from previous projects. an expertbased approach
is based on a workbreakdown structure
D. A metricsbased approach is based on an analysis of the specification documents. an expertbased
approach is based on the opinion of the most experienced tester in the organisation
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is a MAJOR task of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?
A. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders
B. Logging the outcome of test execution
C. Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy.
D. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system
Answer: A

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NO.4 A system requires 100% decision coverage at component testing for all modules. The following module
has been tested with a single test case.
The test case follows the path A, B, D, E, F, G. What level of decision coverage has been achieved?
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%
Answer: B

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NO.5 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following are characteristics of good testing in any life cycle model? A. Every
development activity has a corresponding test activity.
b. Testers review development documents early.
c. There are separate levels for component and system integration test.
d. Each test level has objectives specific to that level.
e. Each test level is based on the same test basis.
A. a, d and e
B. b, c and e
C. a, c and d
D. a, b and d
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which ADDITIONAL test level could be introduced into a standard Vmodel after system testing?
A. System Integration Testing
B. Acceptance Testing
C. Regression Testing
D. Component Integration Testing
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following BEST describes a datadriven approach to the use of test execution tools?
A. Monitoring response times when the system contains a specified amount of data
B. Manipulation of databases and files to create test data
C. Using a generic script that reads test input data from a file
D. Recording test scripts and playing them back
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?
a. Variables that are never used.
b. Security vulnerabilities.
c. Poor performance.
d. Unreachable code.
e. Business processes not followed.
A. b, c and d are true. a and e are false
B. a is true. b, c, d and e are false
C. c, d and e are true. a and b are false
D. a, b and d are true. c and e are false
Answer: D

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NO.10 Given the following sample of pseudo code: 01 Input number of male rabbits 02 Input number of
female rabbits 03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then 04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No? 06 Print Keep male and female rabbits apart!? 07 End if 08 End If. Which of the
following test cases will ensure that statement ?6?is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = yes?
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = no?
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = yes?
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = no?
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a. Adapt planning based on test results.
b. Create test specifications.
c. Plan tests.
d. Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader. a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader. c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader. b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader. b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.12 When in the lifecycle should testing activities start?
A. As early as possible
B. After the test environment is ready
C. After the requirements have been reviewed
D. Once the code is available to test Answer: A

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NO.13 How is the scope of maintenance testing assessed?
A. Scope is related to the risk, size of the changes and size of the system under test
B. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
C. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
D. Scope is related to the number of system users affected by the change.
Answer: A

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NO.14 During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you review the test basis?
A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
B. Test implementation and execution
C. Test analysis and design
D. Test planning and control
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following statements is GENERALLY true of testing?
a. Testing can show the presence of defects.
b. Testing reduces the probability of uncovered defects.
c. Testing can show that a previously present defect has been removed.
d. Testing can prove that software is defect free.
A. a, b and c
B. a, b and d
C. a, c and d
D. b, c and d Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following test design techniques would be most suitable for testing that the
oxygen is released at the required times?
A. Decision Testing.
B. Statement Testing.
C. Data flow Testing.
D. Boundary Value Analysis.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is an accurate depiction of the hierarchy of test management
documentation (where the highest comes first)?
A. Test policy-Test strategy-Project test plan-System test plan
B. Test strategy-Test policy-Project test plan-System test plan
C. Test policy-Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan
D. Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan-Test policy
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which one is a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A. The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to
monitor air temperatures.
B. SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C. Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D. Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When creating the functional specification for the temperature control system, which of the
following review types would be most recommended to resolve any issues?
A. A walkthrough.
B. A technical review.
C. A management review.
D. A code inspection.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following would be an entry criterion into site acceptance testing for the air
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A. That the code written to fulfil the requirement to monitor carbon dioxide levels has been 100%
path tested.
B. That the functional specification accurately reflects requirements R1 and R2.
C. That the system has been tested at levels of oxygen usage well beyond anticipated personnel
levels.
D. That the requirements for temperature control have been signed-off.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following are characteristic of test management tools?
a) They support traceability of tests to source documents.
b) They provide an interface to test execution tools.
c) They help to enforce coding standards.
d) They manipulate databases and files to set up test data.
A. a and c
B. b and c
C. a and b
D. b and d
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is a purpose of the review kick off activity?
A. Explain the objectives
B. Select the personnel group
C. Document results
D. Define entry and exit criteria
Answer: A

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NO.3 Given the following state table:
Which of the following represents an INVALID transition (N)?
A. Off fromisplay Channel 1?
B. Channel 2 from Display Channel 1?
C. Stby from Live?
D. Channel 2 from Live?
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement about combinations of inputs and preconditions is true for a large system?
A. It is easy to test them all in a short time
B. It is not practically possible to test them all
C. It is not possible to test any of them
D. It is essential to test them all in order to do good testing
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is an example of a product risk?
A. Software that does not perform its intended functions
B. Failure of a third party
C. Problems in defining the right requirements
D. Skill and staff shortages
Answer: A

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NO.6 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.7 Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the User
log-on process. User log-on is a critical component of the system. The table below describes the four
defect reports submitted.
Which Tester has reported the incident MOST effectively, considering the information and priority they
have supplied?
A. Tester 3
B. Tester 1
C. Tester 2
D. Tester 4
Answer: D

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NO.8 In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up.
A. Test implementation and execution.
B. Test planning and control
C. Test analysis and design
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: A

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NO.9 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000
Answer: A

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NO.10 A system specification states that a particular field should accept alphabetical characters in either upper
or lower case.
Which of the following test cases is from an INVALID equivalence partition?
A. Feeds
B. F33ds
C. FEEDS
D. fEEDs
Answer: B

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NO.11 Given the following flow chart diagram:
What is the minimum number of test cases required for 100% statement coverage and 100% decision
coverage, respectively?
A. Statement Coverage = 1, Decision Coverage = 3.
B. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 3.
C. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 2.
D. Statement Coverage = 3, Decision Coverage = 3
Answer: C

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NO.12 The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100%
decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.
The following test cases have been run:
* Test Case 1 covering path A, B, D, G
* Test Case 2 covering path A, B, D, E, F, E, F, E, F, E, G
* Test Case 3 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?
A. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
B. Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.B.Statement coverage is less than
100%; decision coverage is 100%.
C. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%.C.Statement coverage is 100%;
decision coverage is less than 100%.
D. Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%.D.Statement coverage and
decision coverage are both less than 100%.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which one of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any lifecycle model?
A. Each test level has the same test objective.
B. There should be more testing activities than development activities.
C. Test design can only begin when development is complete.
D. Testers should begin to review documents as soon as drafts are available.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following are structure-based techniques?
a) Decision table testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Multiple condition coverage
d) Use case testing
e) Decision testing
A. a and c.
B. b and d.
C. b and e.
D. c and e.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a) Adapt planning based on test results.
b) Create test specifications.
c) Plan tests.
d) Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader; a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader; c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader; b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader; b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Given the following sample of pseudo code:
01.Input number of male rabbits
02 Input number of female rabbits
03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then
04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No
06 Print deep male and female rabbits apart
07 End if
08 End If.
Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement 6 is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = Yes
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = No
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = Yes
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = No
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which one of the following is true of software development models?
A. There are always four test levels in the V-model.
B. In a Rapid Application Development (RAD) project, there are four test levels for each iteration.
C. In Agile development models, the number of test levels for an iteration can vary depending on the
project.
D. There must be at least four test levels for any software development model.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Pair the correct test design techniques (i to v) with the category of techniques (x, y and z):
i) Exploratory Testing
ii) Equivalence Partitioning
iii)Decision Testing
iv)Use Case Testing
v) Condition coverage
x) Specification-based
y) Structure-based
z) Experienced-based
A. x =i and ii; y = iii and v; z = iv.
B. x =i, ii and iv; y = v; z = iii
C. x = ii and iv; y = iii and v; z = i.
D. x = iii and iv; y = v; z = i and ii.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a
testing tool?
A. Determine whether the organisation existing test process needs to change.
B. Conduct a proof of concept.
C. Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. d) Identify coaching and
mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool
D. a, b and c.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a) Stubs may be used.
b) May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c) Tests the interactions between software components.
d) Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B

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Exam Name: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Green IT)
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Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of these is NOT an example of a Carbon Offsetting scheme?
A. Supplying new solar cookers in Indonesia.
B. Providing new for old car tyres in the United Kingdom.
C. Generating hydropower without dams in Fiji.
D. Making electricity from landfill in South Africa.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following actions make a PC more energy efficient?
A. Disabling stand-by settings.
B. Enabling active power management.
C. Enabling active screen savers.
D. Disabling CPU throttling features.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The Carbon Footprint comprises of both direct and indirect emissions.
Which of the following is an indirect emission?
A. Travelling to the office.
B. Opening a spreadsheet.
C. Disposing of a server.
D. Printing out a report.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are monitoring energy usage in the data centre. Which of the following techniques can you use?
a) Data aggregating.
b) Thermal profiling.
c) CPU throttling.
d) Server metering.
A. a and c only.
B. b and d only.
C. b and c only.
D. a and d only.
Answer: B

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NO.5 How much energy is used by monitor when displaying a PC screen saver?
A. The same as a standard office application.
B. Half the power of a standard office application.
C. One third the power of a standard office application.
D. Twice the power of a standard office application.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is the greatest business challenge facing data centres?
A. The shortened technology refresh cycles of suppliers.
B. The cost of next generation blade servers.
C. The ability to manage all data centres centrally.
D. The increase in data storage requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following describes Carbon Neutrality?
A. Eliminating CO2 emissions from product manufacture.
B. Maintaining CO2 emissions at a pre-defined agreed level.
C. Balancing CO2 emissions with an equivalent offset amount.
D. Matching CO2 emissions between defined business areas.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What should be achieved when setting the scope of an organisation's Green IT Policy.?
A. A definition of what goals are required for the project.
B. A definition of what resources are required for the project.
C. A definition of what people are required for the project.
D. A definition of what activities are required for the project.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following must be measured when calculating the annual energy consumption of a
server?
A. How long the server takes to shut down and reboot.
B. The amount of times the system is upgrading in a year.
C. The energy consumed in different modes of operation.
D. The operating temperature of the server during peak loads.
Answer: C

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NO.10 In which units are the results of a Carbon Footprint Calculation displayed?
A. Dollars.
B. Kilowatts.
C. Tonnes.
D. Litres.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following uses Greenhouse Gas conversion factors to work out CO2 emissions?
A. The ROCI Matrix.
B. The Emissions Reduction Flowchart.
C. The Carbon Footprint Calculator.
D. The Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is a Framework that can be used to implement Green IT systems?
A. The IT Infrastructure Library.
B. The Environmental Systems Method.
C. The Green Data Centre Toolkit.
D. The Custom Development Framework.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the first step that an organisation should take to improve its Green IT credentials?
A. Rationalise its Data Centre.
B. Review competitors' green policies.
C. Establish its Green IT policy.
D. Replace its old PCs.
Answer: C

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NO.14 How can you use a Continual Service Improvement Model as part of your green IT programme?
A. To ensure on-going monitoring and feedback through the programme lifecycle.
B. To ensure adequate technical support throughout the programme lifecycle.
C. To ensure agile application development to support the programme lifecycle.
D. To ensure senior management commitment throughout the programme lifecycle.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following is part of an organisation's direct Carbon Footprint?
A. Financial services.
B. Office refurbishment.
C. Corporate entertaining.
D. Business travel.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which document should be created to ensure the implementation of your Green IT policy?
A. The green development plan.
B. The green procurement policy.
C. The green IT action plan.
D. The green building plan.
Answer: C

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NO.17 A Green IT policy should be aligned to which other organizational policy?
a) Performance Management Policy.
b) Sustainability Policy.
c) Equal Opportunities Policy.
d) Environmental Policy.
A. b and d only.
B. a, b and d only.
C. b and c only.
D. b, c and d only.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following are reasons that Home Working can reduce your carbon footprint?
a) It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
b) It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
c) It reduces the space needed within the office.
d) It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
A. b and c only.
B. a and d only.
C. a and c only.
D. c and d only.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following is a Framework that can be used to implement Green IT systems?
A. The IT Infrastructure Library.
B. The Environmental Systems Method.
C. The Green Data Centre Toolkit.
D. The Custom Development Framework.
Answer: A

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NO.20 What action can you take to reduce the power consumption of your data centre?
A. Shut down servers out of business hours.
B. Replace small servers with larger ones.
C. Reallocate under-used servers to run active services.
D. Upgrade servers to always run the latest software.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: BH0-004
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB ISTQB Certificate in Software Testing)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 44 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-20

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NO.1 Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage?
if width > length then
biggest_dimension = width
if height > width then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
else
biggest_dimension = length
if height > length then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
end_if
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Where may functional testing be performed?
A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.
Answer: B

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NO.5 As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?
A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: BH0-010
Exam Name: ISEB (BCS Certified Tester Foundation Level 2011 syllabus)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-20

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NO.1 Which one of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any lifecycle model?
A. Each test level has the same test objective.
B. There should be more testing activities than development activities.
C. Test design can only begin when development is complete.
D. Testers should begin to review documents as soon as drafts are available.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a) Adapt planning based on test results.
b) Create test specifications.
c) Plan tests.
d) Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader; a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader; c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader; b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader; b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement about combinations of inputs and preconditions is true for a large system?
A. It is easy to test them all in a short time
B. It is not practically possible to test them all
C. It is not possible to test any of them
D. It is essential to test them all in order to do good testing
Answer: B

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NO.4 Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the User
log-on process. User log-on is a critical component of the system. The table below describes the four
defect reports submitted.
Which Tester has reported the incident MOST effectively, considering the information and priority they
have supplied?
A. Tester 3
B. Tester 1
C. Tester 2
D. Tester 4
Answer: D

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NO.5 In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up.
A. Test implementation and execution.
B. Test planning and control
C. Test analysis and design
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: A

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NO.6 Given the following sample of pseudo code:
01.Input number of male rabbits
02 Input number of female rabbits
03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then
04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No
06 Print deep male and female rabbits apart
07 End if
08 End If.
Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement 6 is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = Yes
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = No
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = Yes
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = No
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is a purpose of the review kick off activity?
A. Explain the objectives
B. Select the personnel group
C. Document results
D. Define entry and exit criteria
Answer: A

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NO.8 A system specification states that a particular field should accept alphabetical characters in either upper
or lower case.
Which of the following test cases is from an INVALID equivalence partition?
A. Feeds
B. F33ds
C. FEEDS
D. fEEDs
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a) Stubs may be used.
b) May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c) Tests the interactions between software components.
d) Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is an example of a product risk?
A. Software that does not perform its intended functions
B. Failure of a third party
C. Problems in defining the right requirements
D. Skill and staff shortages
Answer: A

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NO.11 Given the following state table:
Which of the following represents an INVALID transition (N)?
A. Off fromisplay Channel 1?
B. Channel 2 from Display Channel 1?
C. Stby from Live?
D. Channel 2 from Live?
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which one of the following is true of software development models?
A. There are always four test levels in the V-model.
B. In a Rapid Application Development (RAD) project, there are four test levels for each iteration.
C. In Agile development models, the number of test levels for an iteration can vary depending on the
project.
D. There must be at least four test levels for any software development model.
Answer: C

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NO.13 The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100%
decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.
The following test cases have been run:
* Test Case 1 covering path A, B, D, G
* Test Case 2 covering path A, B, D, E, F, E, F, E, F, E, G
* Test Case 3 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?
A. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
B. Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.B.Statement coverage is less than
100%; decision coverage is 100%.
C. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%.C.Statement coverage is 100%;
decision coverage is less than 100%.
D. Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%.D.Statement coverage and
decision coverage are both less than 100%.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Pair the correct test design techniques (i to v) with the category of techniques (x, y and z):
i) Exploratory Testing
ii) Equivalence Partitioning
iii)Decision Testing
iv)Use Case Testing
v) Condition coverage
x) Specification-based
y) Structure-based
z) Experienced-based
A. x =i and ii; y = iii and v; z = iv.
B. x =i, ii and iv; y = v; z = iii
C. x = ii and iv; y = iii and v; z = i.
D. x = iii and iv; y = v; z = i and ii.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Given the following flow chart diagram:
What is the minimum number of test cases required for 100% statement coverage and 100% decision
coverage, respectively?
A. Statement Coverage = 1, Decision Coverage = 3.
B. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 3.
C. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 2.
D. Statement Coverage = 3, Decision Coverage = 3
Answer: C

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NO.16 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following are characteristic of test management tools?
a) They support traceability of tests to source documents.
b) They provide an interface to test execution tools.
c) They help to enforce coding standards.
d) They manipulate databases and files to set up test data.
A. a and c
B. b and c
C. a and b
D. b and d
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a
testing tool?
A. Determine whether the organisation existing test process needs to change.
B. Conduct a proof of concept.
C. Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. d) Identify coaching and
mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool
D. a, b and c.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following are structure-based techniques?
a) Decision table testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Multiple condition coverage
d) Use case testing
e) Decision testing
A. a and c.
B. b and d.
C. b and e.
D. c and e.
Answer: D

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NO.20 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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