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Exam Code: JN0-341
Exam Name: Juniper (ER.Associate(JNCIA-ER))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-26

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NO.1 How many committed configuration files are stored on the Juniper Networks enterprise router?
A.4
B.15
C.48
D.50
Correct:D

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NO.2 Which two statements regarding system logging on a Juniper enterprise router are correct?
(Choose two.)
A.The system log has a proprietary format.
B.System logs must be sent to a remote device.
C.New system logs can be created and archived.
D.Most software processes create their own logs.
Correct:C D

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NO.3 Which CLI command will ping destination 10.0.29.1 ten times and display the incoming interface
of the received packet?
A.ping count 10 10.0.29.1 detail
B.ping number 10 10.0.29.1 detail
C.ping count 10 10.0.29.1 extensive
D.ping number 10 10.0.29.1 extensive
Correct:A

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NO.4 Which CLI command displays all OSPF LSAs received by the local router?
A.show ospf neighbor
B.show ospf database
C.show ospf interface
D.show ospf adjacency
Correct:B

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NO.5 What is shown by the command show interfaces extensive fe-0/0/0 but not shown by the
command show interface detail fe-0/0/0?
A.input error counter
B.interface MTU size
C.input packets counter
D.the IP address on logical interface fe-0/0/0.0
Correct:A

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, the protect-re filter is applied as an input filter on the
lo0.0 interface and all possible services are enabled under [edit system services]. Which two
methods can you use to access the router? (Choose two.)
A.FTP
B.SSH
C.Telnet
D.J-Web
Correct:B D

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NO.7 What are two methods of accessing a Juniper enterprise router? (Choose two)
A.RSH
B.HTTPS
C.console
D.J-Config
Correct:B C

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NO.8 What is the default route preference for static routes?
A.0
B.5
C.10
D.170
Correct:B

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NO.9 Which J-Web menu displays the users currently logged into the CLI?
A.Monitor > Users
B.Manage > Users
C.Monitor > System
D.Manage > System
Correct:C

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NO.10 The J-Web application can install the JUNOS software from which two locations? (Choose two.)
A.SDX
B.local PC
C.BSD shell
D.remote host
Correct:B D

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NO.11 Which three initial configuration methods are supported on J-series routers? (Choose three.)
A.CLI
B.J-Web
C.JUNOScope
D.autoinstallation
E.PCMCIA flash card
Correct:A B D

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NO.12 In configuration mode you see the following prompt: [edit interfaces fe-1/1/1] user@router#
Which command will take you to operational mode?
A.end
B.exit
C.quit
D.exit configuration-mode
Correct:D

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NO.13 Which two field-replaceable units (FRUs) are hot-swappable? (Choose two.)
A.Routing Engine on M10i
B.Physical Interface Card on M7i
C.fan tray on J-series routers
D.Physical Interface Modules on J6300 router
Correct:A B

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NO.14 Which three options can be used with the load CLI command? (Choose three.)
A.merge
B.replace
C.partial
D.complete
E.override
Correct:A B E

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NO.15 Which multicast address does RIPv2 use for route updates by default?
A.224.0.0.2
B.224.0.0.5
C.224.0.0.9
D.255.255.255.255
Correct:C

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NO.16 Which type of IGP should you use to achieve scalability in a large enterprise network?
A.link-state protocol
B.path-vector protocol
C.Bellman-Ford protocol
D.distance-vector protocol
Correct:A

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NO.17 What are two functions of the Intel IXP processors? (Choose two.)
A.keepalives
B.route-lookup
C.CRC validation
D.Layer 2 decapsulation
Correct:A C

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NO.18 What is one configuration method for loading a factory default configuration onto a J-series
router?
A.load override reset
B.load factory-default
C.rollback factory-default
D.request system factory-default
Correct:B

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NO.19 Which command copies the factory-default files to your backup media?
A.request system snapshot rescue
B.request system snapshot factory
C.request system snapshot default
D.request system snapshot as-primary
Correct:B

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NO.20 What does the number one (1) represent for interface fe-0/0/1?
A.port number
B.PCI slot number
C.channel number
D.virtual PIC number
Correct:A

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Exam Code: JN0-330
Exam Name: Juniper (JN0-330-Enhanced Services, Specialist(JNCIS-ES))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-26

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, what will happen to the traffic matching the security
policy?
A. The traffic is permitted through the myTunnel IPSec tunnel only on Tuesdays.
B. The traffic is permitted through the myTunnel IPSec tunnel daily, with the exception of Mondays.
C. The traffic is permitted through the myTunnel IPSec tunnel all day on Mondays, Wednesdays between
7:00 am and 6:00 pm, and Thursdays between 7:00 am and 6:00 pm.
D. The traffic is permitted through the myTunnel IPSec tunnel all day on Mondays, Wednesdays between
6:01 pm and 6:59 am, and Thursdays between 6:01 pm and 6:59 am.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Which type of source NAT is configured in the exhibit?
A. static source pool
B. interface source pool
C. source pool with PAT
D. souce pool without PAT
Answer:A

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NO.3 You must configure a SCREEN option that would protect your router from a session table flood.
Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. [edit security screen]
user@hostl# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
icmp {
ip-sweep threshold 5000;
flood threshold 2000;
}
B. [edit security screen]
user@hostl# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
tcp {
syn-flood {
attack-threshold 2000;
destination-threshold 2000;
}
C. [edit security screen]
user@hostl# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
udp {
flood threshold 5000;
}
D. [edit security screen]
user@hostl# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
limit-session {
source-ip-based 1200;
destination-ip-based 1200;
}
Answer: D

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NO.4 A traditional router is better suited than a firewall device for which function?
A. VPN establishment
B. packet-based forwarding
C. stateful packet processing
D. network address translation
Answer: B

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NO.5 You want to create a policy allowing traffic from any host in the Trust zone to hostb.example.com
(172.19.1.1) in the
Untrust zone. How do you do create this policy?
A. Specify the IP address (172.19.1.1/32) as the destination address in the policy.
B. Specify the DNS entry (hostb.example.com.) as the destination address in the policy.
C. Create an address book entry in the Trust zone for the 172.19.1.1/32 prefix and reference this entry in
the policy.
D. Create an address book entry in the Untrust zone for the 172.19.1.1/32 prefix and reference this entry
in the policy.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three parameters are configured in the IKE policy? (Choose three.)
A. mode
B. preshared key
C. external interface
D. security proposals
E. dead peer detection settings
Answer: ABD

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NO.7 You are not able to telnet to the interface IP of your JUNOS software with enhanced services device
from a PC on the same subnet. What is causing the problem?
A. Telnet is not being permitted by self policy.
B. Telnet is not being permitted by security policy.
C. Telnet is not allowed because it is not considered secure.
D. Telnet is not enabled as a host-inbound service on the zone.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Host A opens a Telnet connection to Host B. Host A then opens another Telnet connection to Host B.
These connections are the only communication between Host A and Host B. The security policy
configuration permits both connections. How many flows exist between Host A and Host B?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two statements regarding asymmetric key encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same key is used for encryption and decryption.
B. It is commonly used to create digital certificate signatures.
C. It uses two keys: one for encryption and a different key for decryption.
D. An attacker can decrypt data if the attacker captures the key used for encryption.
Answer: BC

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NO.10 Which three security concerns can be addressed by a tunnel mode IPSec VPN secured by AH?
(Choose three.)
A. data integrity
B. data confidentiality
C. data authentication
D. outer IP header confidentiality
E. outer IP header authentication
Answer:ACE

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NO.11 Which two are components of the JUNOS software's routing policy? (Choose two.)
A. route-map
B. prefix-list
C. distribute-list
D. policy-statement
Answer: BD

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NO.12 In JUNOS software with enhanced services, which three packet elements are inspected to determine
if a session
already exists? (Choose three.)
A. IP protocol
B. IP time-to-live
C. source and destination IP address
D. source and destination MAC address
E. source and destination TCP/UDP port
Answer:ACE

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NO.13 A route-based VPN is required for which scenario?
A. when the remote VPN peer is behind a NAT device
B. when multiple networks need to be reached across the tunnel
C. when the remote VPN peer is a dialup or remote access client
D. when a dynamic routing protocol such as OSPF is required across the VPN
Answer: D

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. Three physical interfaces are redundant.
B. You must define an additional Redundancy Group.
C. node 0 will immediately become primary in the cluster.
D. You must issue an operational command and reboot the system for the above configuration to take
effect.
Answer: D

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NO.15 In a JSRP cluster with two J6350 routers, the interface ge-7/0/0 belongs to which device?
A. This interface is a system-created interface.
B. This interface belongs to NODE0 of the cluster.
C. This interface belongs to NODE1 of the cluster.
D. This interface will not exist because J6350 routers have only six slots.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which command allows you to view the router's current priority for VRRP group 100 on interface
ge-0/0/1.0?
A. show vrrp
B. show vrrp group 100
C. show interfaces ge-0/0/1.0 vrrp group 100
D. show interfaces vrrp ge-0/0/1.0 group 100
Answer:A

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NO.17 Interface ge-0/0/2.0 of your router is attached to the Internet and is configured with an IP address and
network mask
of 71.33.252.17/24. A host with IP address 10.20.20.1 is running an HTTP service on TCP port 8080. This
host isattached to the ge-0/0/0.0 interface of your router. You must use interface-based static NAT to
make the HTTP service on the host reachable from the Internet.
On which IP address and TCP port can Internet hosts reach the HTTP service?
A. IP address 10.10.10.1 and TCP port 8080
B. IP address 71.33.252.17 and TCP port 80
C. IP address 71.33.251.19 and TCP port 80
D. IP address 71.33.252.19 and TCP port 8080
Answer: D

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, client PC 192.168.10.10 cannot ping 1.1.1.2.
Which is a potential cause for this problem?
A. The untrust zone does not have a management policy configured.
B. The trust zone does not have ping enabled as host-inbound-traffic service.
C. The security policy from the trust zone to the untrust zone does not permit ping.
D. No security policy exists for the ICMP reply packet from the untrust zone to the trust zone.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which two are components of the enhanced services software architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Linux kernel
B. routing protocol daemon
C. session-based forwarding module
D. separate routing and security planes
Answer: BC

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NO.20 Users can define policy to control traffic flow between which two components? (Choose two.)
A. from a zone to the router itself
B. from a zone to the same zone
C. from a zone to a different zone
D. from one interface to another interface
Answer: BC

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NO.21 On which three traffic types does firewall pass-through authentication work? (Choose three.)
A. ping
B. FTP
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
E. HTTPS
Answer: BCD

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NO.22 Click the Exhibit button.
host_a is in subnet_a and host_b is in subnet_b.
Given the configuration shown in the exhibit, which statement is true about traffic from host_a to host_b?
A. DNS traffic is denied.
B. Telnet traffic is denied.
C. SMTP traffic is denied.
D. Ping traffic is permitted.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the purpose of this OSPF configuration?
A. The router sends the file debugOSPF (containing hellos sent and LSA updates) to the syslog server.
B. The router traces both OSPF hellos sent and LSA updates, and stores the results in the debugOSPF
file.
C. The router traces both OSPF hellos sent and LSA updates, and sends the results to the syslog process
with the debugOSPF facility.
D. The router traces all OSPF operations, stores the results in the debugOSPF file, and marks both hellos
sent and LSAupdates in the file with a special flag.
Answer: B

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NO.24 You want to enable SSH and Telnet access to the router's CLI. Under which configuration hierarchy
would you enable these protocols?
A. [edit system cli]
B. [edit security cli]
C. [edit system services]
D. [edit security services]
Answer: C

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NO.25 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the priority for Router B in VRRP group 100?
A. 1
B. 100
C. 110
D. 255
Answer: B

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NO.26 Using a policy with the policy-rematch flag enabled, what happens to the existing and new sessions
when you change the policy action from permit to deny?
A. The new sessions matching the policy are denied. The existing sessions are dropped.
B. The new sessions matching the policy are denied. The existing sessions, not being allowed to carry
any traffic, simply timeout.
C. The new sessions matching the policy might be allowed through if they match another policy. The
existing sessions are dropped.
D. The new sessions matching the policy are denied. The existing sessions continue until they are
completed or their timeout is reached.
Answer:A

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NO.27 Which two are characteristics of link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Routers choose a best path for a destination based on the SPF algorithm.
B. All routers in a given area or level build a consistent database describing the network's topology.
C. Routers choose the best path for a destination based on the interface on which they received the link
stateadvertisement with the lowest cost.
D. All routers in a given area or level forward link state advertisements between interfaces in the same
area or level,
adding their metric to the link state advertisement's cost information when they forward it.
Answer:AB

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NO.28 Which statement is true about interface-based static NAT?
A. It also supports PAT.
B. It requires you to configure address entries in the junos-nat zone.
C. It requires you to configure address entries in the junos-global zone.
D. The IP addresses being translated must be in the same subnet as the incoming interface.
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which parameters must you select when configuring operating system probes SCREEN options?
A. syn-fin, syn-flood, and tcp-no-frag
B. syn-fin, port-scan, and tcp-no-flag
C. syn-fin, fin-no-ack, and tcp-no-frag
D. syn-fin, syn-ack-ack-proxy, and tcp-no-frag
Answer: C

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Exam Code: JN0-120
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet associate.e(jncia-e))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 By default, how does the router handle changes to its operational configuration?
A. Changes are not implemented, but are saved automatically.
B. Changes are not implemented and must be written into memory.
C. Changes are implemented immediately and saved automatically.
D. Changes are implemented immediately, but must be written into memory.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which protocol is used to transfer files to on the ERX Edge Router? (Choose two.)
A. SCP
B. FTP
C. RCP
D. TFTP
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 How are the slot groups arranged in the ERX 700 Series Edge Router?
A. Group 1 - Slots 0 &1 Group 2 - Slot 2 Group 3 - Slot 3 Group 4 - Slot 4
B. Group 1 - Slots 2 & 3 Group 2 - Slot 4 Group 3 - Slot 5 Group 4 - Slot 6
C. Group 1 - Slot 2 Group 2 - Slot 3 Group 3 - Slot 4 Group 4 - Slot 5 & 6
D. Group 1 - Slot 3 Group 2 - Slot 4 Group 3 - Slot 5 Group 4 - Slots 6 & 7
Answer: B

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NO.4 You would like to install an OC-48c line module in an ERX 1440 Edge Router. Which slots can support
this configuration?
A. 0 and 1
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are two ways that IP datagrams are passed from the ingress line module to the egress line
module? (Choose two.)
A. over an ATM PVC
B. over a FastEthernet bus
C. over a Gigabit Ethernet bus
D. over high speed serial bus
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which configuration command creates a virtual router called isp-1?
A. virtual-router isp-1
B. virtual-router ISP-1
C. virtual-router VR isp-1
D. virtual-router VR ISP-1
Answer: A

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NO.7 In a bridged 1483 network, which configuration command allows the ERX Edge Router to advertise
customer networks into the provider's IGP?
A. redistribute direct
B. redistribute static
C. redistribute connected
D. redistribute access-internal
Answer: C

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NO.8 What does the SRP distribute to the line modules when a routing table changes?
A. updated RIB-Out
B. link-state information
C. an incremental update
D. the complete routing table
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two B-RAS service offerings do not require user authentication? (Choose two.)
A. Routed 1483
B. Bridged 1483
C. PPP over ATM
D. PPP over Ethernet
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 A service provider is operating a Routed 1483 network where the ATM PVCs are treated as a large
subnet. What is a consequence of this configuration?
A. It burns up IP addresses.
B. It conserves IP addresses.
C. It results in a smaller routing table.
D. Each PVC has a separate /30 subnet.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which service does the ERX Edge Router support with a virtual router?
A. voice over IP
B. wholesale services
C. IP quality of service
D. SNMP management
Answer: B

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NO.12 You would like to configure your PC's IP address of 10.10.0.156 as an FTP host with a username of
user and a password of mypass. Which configuration command accomplishes this goal.?
A. host userpc 10.10.0.156 ftp user mypass
B. host userpc 10.10.0.156 tftp user mypass
C. hostname userpc 10.10.0.156 ftp user mypass
D. hostname userpc 10.10.0.156 tftp user mypass
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which two forms of DSL connectivity provide the same bandwidth in both directions? (Choose two.)
A. ADSL
B. HDSL
C. SDSL
D. RADSL
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 You would like to configure an ATM PVC with a virtual circuit identifier of 33 on virtual path 0. The PVC
should use an unspecified bit rate and be encapsulated in the AAL5SNAP format. Which command
accomplishes this goal?
A. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
C. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap ubr
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap ubr
Answer: B

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NO.15 Where should you install the spare line module in a redundancy group?
A. last slot in the chassis
B. first slot in the chassis
C. lowest numbered slot in the group
D. highest numbered slot in the group
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which protocol is used between the RAS and the authentication server in a narrowband network
environment?
A. RADIUS
B. PPP PAP
C. MS CHAP
D. PPP CHAP
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which command configures an ATM PVC in a Bridged 1483 network?
A. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5bridge
C. atm pvc 33 0 33 bridge1483
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 1483bridge
Answer: A

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NO.18 Given the following router output, which configuration file will the router use at its next reload?
A. config
B. clientqos.cnf
C. startup-config
D. running-configuration
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which two statements are correct concerning DHCP Internal Server in the E-series router? (Choose
two.)
A. Provide dynamic IP addresses for DSIs.
B. Provide connectivity to DHCP servers on other subnetworks.
C. Provide dynamic IP addresses for SRC applications.
D. Provide dynamic IP addresses from pools used for PPPoE subscribers.
Answer: A,C

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NO.20 Your ERX router is supporting 100 virtual routers. A specific line module supports IP interfaces in 5
virtual routers. How many routing tables are maintained on that module?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 100
Answer: C

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Exam Code: JN0-560
Exam Name: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate.....)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A user is not getting access to needed resources. They are currently unavailable to
work with directly.
What information do you need to use the simulation tool to work on their problem?
(choose three)
A. remain
B. resource
C. username
D. role mapping
E. user password
F. admin override password
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 You need to provide support for at least 100 Web connections but want to plan for
a total of 500 simultaneous as part of the growth plan.
Which is the least expensive model of the Secure Access product that meets this
requirement?
A. RA500
B. SA1000
C. SA3000
D. SA5000
E. SM3000
Answer: C

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NO.3 Host Checker is primarily used to:
A. Remove unwanted files from the remote machine
B. Determine the surety posture of the remote machine
C. Distribute software posture to the remote machine
D. Capture sign in credentials of the remote user
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three troubleshooting tools are available from the GUI? (Choose three)
A. ping
B. snoop
C. debug
D. tcpdump
E. trace route
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 JSAM starts, but the client cannot connect:
Which two questions should you consider when troubleshooting this problem?
(Choose Two)
A. is ActiveX allowed in browser?
B. Is the user logged in under the correct account?
C. Does the user have a personal firewall blocking 127x.x.x?
D. Has the host file been rewritten to redirect the traffic to a loopback address?
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 What are two functions performed by the inermediation engine?
A. Authorization :This function insures users trying to access the IVE are who they say
they are and then forwards requests o the inside server using those credentials.
B. Authentication: This function insures user trying to access the IVE are who they say
they are and then intermediates requests to the inside server using those credentials.
C. Transformer: This function can modify the "chunked" data stream before it passes he
data to the request handlers. Transformers modify internal URLs, HTML markup and
scripts to refer to "virtual"URLs/markup/scripts sourced from the IVE appliances.
D. Parser: This function processes data streams into chunks that can be manipulated by
the transformers.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Which two features are available on an unlicensed IVE? (choose two)
A. SAM
B. File access via a Web interface
C. Ten user access
D. Web access
E. Network Connect
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Cache Cleaner is primarily used to:
A. Determine which files should be cached between remote access sessions
B. Remove web content downloaded during the remote access session
C. Remove web content cached by the IVE on behalf of the user
D. Prevent users from signing in from insecure machines
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are two strength of SSL? (Choose two)
A. SSL is familiar o most users.
B. SSL does no need to be installed or configured.
C. SSL outperforms IPSec on every level because it operates at the network layer rather
than the applicationlayer.
D. The SSL client is smaller than most IPSec clients, with half the options to configure
than that of an IPSec clien.
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 Which three troubleshooting tools are available from the serial console? (Choose
three)
A. ping
B. tcpdump
C. trace route
D. view arp cache
E. add routing table entries
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.11 What are two possible reasons for WSAM not starting on the client? (choose two)
A. Java is disabled in the browser
B. Active x is disabled in the browser
C. A popup blocker is installed on the client machine.
D. There is a possible conflict with other LSP-based applications like IPSec, VPN clients
or Spyware.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Which three logs are default log files on the IVE system? (Choose three)
A. Event log
B. Traffic log
C. System log
D. User Access log
E. Admin Access log
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.13 A user is not being authenticated properly and has called you for help.
Which two tools help you determine the cause? (Choose two)
A. policy trace
B. policy simulation
C. User Access logs
D. Admin Access logs
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 On an IVE in the default configuration, which URL is valid for administrator
access?
A. http://192.168.1.1
B. https://192.168.1.1
C. http://192.168.1.1/admin
D. https://192.168.1.1/admin
E. https://192.168.1.1/console
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is a shortcoming of Core Access?
A. limited auditing
B. no kiosk access
C. limited resource access
D. requires installation privileges
Answer: C

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NO.16 You install Central Manager and now want to filter your logs to extract
information about system events.
What is the easiest way to create simple log filters?
A. You type the query in by hand in the Edit query field, then select Update.
B. You create the query in the query field using the filer variables Dictionary.
C. In the log display, you click on a field containing the value you want to use as a filter.
D. The Central Manager does not allow for customized logging. You must by a special
license to perform log filtering.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is a drawback of using Application Layer Access?
A. limited auding
B. OS/JVM compatibility issues
C. Only TCP/IP level authorization
D. Limited resource access o enterprise web applications and resource
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following elements can you NO modify on the sign-in page?
A. prompts
B. error messages
C. button text
D. screen size
E. logo
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which two can you change via the sign-in page menu option? (Choose two)
A. authorization server
B. authentication realms
C. custom HML file for help
D. text for login screen display
Answer: C,D

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NO.20 What is the purpose of the sing-in policy?
A. The Sign-in Policy controls whether or not a user can sign-in based on role
membership
B. The sign-in policy defines the URLs that users and administrator can use to access the
IVE.
C. The Sign-in Policy controls which options are available on the login screen based on
the users permissions.
D. The Sign-in Policy controls who can actually get to the login page, based on IP
address, certificate information,Host checker and other criteria
Answer: B

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Exam Code: JN0-660
Exam Name: Juniper (Service Provider Routing and Switching, Professional)
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Total Q&A: 171 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
You are asked to configure an OSPF network based on the topology shown in the exhibit. You must keep
the link-state database in Area 1 as small as possible. What will accomplish this?
A. Area 0 should be configured as a stub area so that it will not announce routes into Area 1.
B. Area 1 should be configured as an NSSA to limit the size of the link-state database.
C. Area 1 should be configured as a stub area with no-summaries to limit the size of the link-state
database.
D. Area 0 should be configured with a virtual link to R4 to limit the size of the Area 1 link-state database.
Answer: C

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NO.2 In which two ways does VPLS populate the MAC table? (Choose two.)
A. dynamically using BGP
B. dynamically using the source MAC address on received frames
C. dynamically using LDP
D. statically using CLI
Answer: B, D

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about OSPFv3? (Choose two.)
A. OSPFv3 uses a 32-bit router ID to uniquely identify a node in the network.
B. OSPFv3 uses a 128-bit router ID to uniquely identify a node in the network.
C. OSPFv3 routes are always preferred over OSPFv2 routes for all traffic.
D. OSPFv3 and OSPFv2 can be configured at the same time.
Answer: A, D

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NO.4 You manage an MPLS network where the PE devices consist of multiple vendors.
You are asked to conceal the MPLS topology for all LSPs.
Which global configuration parameter will accomplish this?
A. Configure no-decrement-ttl on the ingress router only.
B. Configure no-propagate-ttl on the ingress router only.
C. Configure no-decrement-ttl on all routers within the MPLS network.
D. Configure no-propagate-ttl on all routers within the MPLS network.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which MPLS feature was used to make the LSP the preferred path for internal
routes.?
A. traffic engineering bgp-igp
B. traffic engineering shortcuts
C. traffic engineering mpls-forwarding
D. install active
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are provisioning a new customer for access to your Layer 3 VPN. The customer is using
172.16.35.0/24 as their internal IP address space, which is also being used by an existing Layer 3 VPN
customer. The two customers share many PE routers in common across your network. Which mechanism
allows these duplicate addresses to exist in your network?
A. route origin
B. route target
C. route refresh
D. route distinguisher
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are the administrator for a network that uses IBGP. As the network grows, you must examine
options to support increased scale.
Which two scaling options should you consider? (Choose two.)
A. route reflection
B. areas
C. zones
D. confederations
Answer: B, C

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NO.8 Your multicast receivers are indirectly connected to an MX Series router. The receivers need to join
multicast group 224.2.2.2. What must be configured in IGMP to receive report messages from receivers
that are multiple hops away?
A. By default, IGMP accepts report messages from indirectly connected receivers.
B. Promiscuous mode must be enabled in IGMP.
C. Promiscuous mode must be disabled in IGMP.
D. DVMRP protocol must be configured.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, ISP A is charged a higher rate for traffic sent to R2. You are asked to lower costs for ISP A
by configuring R1 to send traffic to R3 whenever possible.
What are two ways to do this? (Choose two.)
A. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.6 local-preference 120
B. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.6 local-preference 80
C. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.10 local-preference 120
D. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.10 local-preference 80
Answer: B, C

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NO.10 Your are the administrator for a network that uses IS-IS as its IGP. As the network grows, you find that
the protocol's default capabilities for setting metrics is limiting your options. Which feature can you
implement to provide a larger range of metric configuration capabilities?
A. extended metrics
B. wide metrics
C. expanded metrics
D. full metrics
Answer: D

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
As shown in the exhibit, you have an adaptive LSP that requires 85 Mbps. The LSP is configured with a
primary path and a secondary path in standby mode. All connections in the MPLS network are Fast
Ethernet. Which statement is correct?
A. The primary and secondary paths are in an up state and operational.
B. The primary and secondary paths are in a down state and not operational.
C. The secondary path is in a down state and not operational.
D. The primary path is in a down state and not operational.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which type of traffic protection mechanism is used for the LSP?
A. fast-reroute
B. link-protection
C. node-link-protection
D. secondary
Answer: B

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
On your MX Series router, traffic using the critical scheduler is out of profile. All other data is currently in
profile. Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The critical queue is serviced before the less-critical queue.
B. The critical queue is serviced after the left-over queue.
C. The critical queue is serviced before the data queue.
D. The critical queue is serviced before the voice queue.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, Area 1 is a not-so-stubby area.
Three networks are redistributed into Area 1 on R2.
You must summarize the redistributed network addresses in Area 1 so that only one network prefix is
re-advertised into Area 0. You must also summarize the loopback addresses of R1 and R2 into a single
address in Area 0.Which configuration sample on R3 and R5 will complete this task?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the configuration in the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the inet.0 table with the next hop of the LSP.
B. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the mpls.0 table with the next hop of the LSP.
C. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the inet.3 table with the next hop of the LSP.
D. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the inet6.3 table with the next hop of the LSP.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
All routers in the exhibit are running IS-IS level 2 routing. The wide-metrics-only parameter is configured
on all routers. Which metric does R1 see for the path to R4?
A. 136
B. 138
C. 310
D. 320
Answer: D

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the drop profile in the exhibit, what is the drop probability when the buffer reaches 90% full?
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 85%
D. 90%
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which CoS feature supports per-VLAN queuing and scheduling?
A. multilevel scheduling
B. hierarchical scheduling
C. tagged queuing
D. per-instance queuing
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which operational mode command displays the number of configured forwarding classes?
A. show interfaces queue ge-1/0/0
B. show interfaces terse
C. show class-of-service interface
D. show forwarding classes
Answer: A

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
All networks shown in the exhibit contain more than one BGP speaking router. You operate ISP A.
You must ensure that customer Y sends their traffic to you over the directly connected link but customer Y
is not used for transit into your network. What do you do to accomplish this? A. Advertise routes to
customer Y with the well-known no-transit community.
B. Advertise routes to customer X with the well-known no-advertise community.
C. Advertise routes to customer Y with the well-known no-export community.
D. Advertise routes to customer X with the well-known as-transit community.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: JN0-201
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet associate.m(jncia-m))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-20

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NO.1 What type of OSPF router is responsible for redistributing routes into OSPF?
A. ABR
B. ASBR
C. internal router
D. backbone router
Answer: B

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NO.2 Assume that a comparable configuration is applied to your peer in AS 11 and that bi-directional TCP
reachability has been achieved. Which EBGP configuration will allow the BGP session to become
established?
A. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
neighbor 10.0.3.6 { peer-as 11; } } }
B. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer1 { type external;
peer-as 11;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
C. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } group external-peer11 { type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor
10.0.3.6; } } type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
D. routing-options { }
E. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
F. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
G. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols {
H. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { } protocols { bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; protocols { bgp { group external-peer101
{ peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } } } }
Answer: A

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NO.3 A firewall filter is applied as an input filter on a transit interface. What three types of traffic will this affect?
(Chose three.)
A. inbound traffic transiting the router
B. outbound traffic transiting the router
C. traffic destined to the Routing Engine
D. traffic destined to the interface address on which the filter is applied
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 If all OSPF routers on a broadcast network have the same OSPF priority, what parameter is used to
determine the new BDR at the time of a DR failure?
A. area ID
B. router ID
C. loopback address
D. IP address of interface on broadcast network
Answer: B

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NO.5 How do you enable interface fe-0/0/0 under the [edit protocols isis] level to form both a Level 1 and
Level 2 adjacency?
A. set interface fe-0/0/0.0
B. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 all level
C. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 3 enable
D. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 1 level 2
Answer: A

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NO.6 Two Level 2 routers are exchanging Hello packets with different Area IDs. What occurs between these
routers?
A. An Adjacency forms.
B. An Adjacency does not form.
C. An Adjacency forms but traffic is not forwarded.
D. No IS-IS PDUs are sent.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What command would you use to view an IS-IS adjacency?
A. show iso neighbor
B. show isis neighbor
C. show iso adjacency
D. show isis adjacency
Answer: D

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NO.8 During OSPF adjacency formation, in what state is a router when it is negotiating to be in charge of the
database synchronization process?
A. Init
B. 2Way
C. ExStart
D. Exchange
Answer: C

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NO.9 What are two ways that a valid IBGP peering session can be configured? (Choose two.)
A. via the accept x.x/y command
B. via TCP reachable physical interface addresses
C. via remote loopbacks with the local-address command
D. via UDP with the neighbor x.x.x.x command at the group level
Answer: BC

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NO.10 Which CLI command is used to see the current OSPF link-state database?
A. show ospf database
B. show ospf neighbor
C. show protocols ospf
D. show ospf link-state
Answer: A

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NO.11 Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?
A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR
B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR
C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone
D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is the first step in BGP route selection?
A. The local router prefers the route with the shortest AS_PATH.
B. The router first verifies that it has a route to the BGP Next Hop IP address.
C. The local router prefers the route from the peer with the lowest peer ID address.
D. The local router prefers the route learned from an EBGP peer over a route learned from an IBGP peer.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Firewall filters can be used to accept, discard, or reject packets based on _____. (Choose three.)
A. protocol type
B. MAC address
C. TCP or UDP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: ACD

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NO.14 Three IS-IS routers on a broadcast segment have different priority values configured. Which router is
elected the DIS on that broadcast segment?
A. the router with the lowest priority
B. the router with the highest priority
C. the router with the highest System ID
D. the router with the highest IP address
Answer: B

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NO.15 What are the three components of the ISO NET address? (Choose three.)
A. Area ID
B. N-selector
C. System ID
D. AS number
E. ISO number
F. MAC address
Answer: ABC

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NO.16 By default, which command can be used to display information about packets that have been logged
with the syslog firewall filter action?
A. show log
B. show firewall
C. show log messages
D. show firewall log
Answer: C

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NO.17 Once the TCP connection is established, which message type initiates the BGP peering process?
A. Open
B. Active
C. Update
D. Keepalive
E. Notification
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the purpose of the OSPF link-state update packet?
A. describes a change to the OSPF hello timer
B. carries one or more link-state advertisements
C. establishes and maintains neighbor relationships
D. describes the contents of the entire link-state database
Answer: B

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NO.19 What are two purposes of the AS_PATH attribute? (Choose two.)
A. route selection
B. loop avoidance
C. determining equal cost paths for reachablilty
D. defining the application of other BGP attributes
Answer: AB

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NO.20 How often are IS-IS Hello packets transmitted?
A. 3 seconds for DIS; 9 seconds for non-DIS
B. 9 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
C. 10 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
D. 10 seconds for all routers
Answer: A

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Exam Code: JN0-303
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet specialist.m(jncis-m))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-20

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NO.1 Which two mechanisms control route distribution between PE routers in a 2547bis VPN? (Choose
two.)
A. Site ID
B. Policies
C. Circuit ID
D. Extended communities
Answer: BD

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NO.2 When comparing CPE and provider-provisioned VPNs (PPVPN), which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. CPE VPN's require dedicated VPN aware hardware at customer site, PPVPN does not.
B. PPVPN's require dedicated VPN aware hardware at customer site, CPE VPN's does not.
C. CPE VPN's scale better than PPVPN's as they do not require a per site configuration on the CPE.
D. PPVPN's scale better than CPE VPN's as they do not require a per site configuration on the CPE.
Answer: AD

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NO.3 What are three examples of a provider-provisioned VPN supported by JUNOS software? (Choose
three.)
A. L2F
B. PPTP
C. Circuit cross-connect
D. Draft-Martini-based VPNs
E. Draft-Kompella-based VPNs
Answer: CDE

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NO.4 What prevents routing loops when MSDP is configured across multiple domains?
A. PIM-SM
B. Scoping
C. Auto-RP
D. MBGP
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the Draft-Kompella control plane based on?
A. IGP
B. LDP
C. BGP
D. MPLS
Answer: C

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NO.6 In JUNOS software, which three are valid encapsulation types for CCC? (Choose three.)
A. hdlc-ccc
B. atm-cell-ccc
C. cisco-hdlc-ccc
D. ethernet-vlan-ccc
E. ethernet-snap-ccc
Answer: BCD

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NO.7 Which two multicast groups support Auto-RP mapping and discovery? (Choose two.)
A. 224.0.0.39
B. 224.0.1.39
C. 224.0.0.40
D. 224.0.1.40
Answer: BD

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NO.8 Which three RP election mechanisms are available in a PIM-SM domain? (Choose three.)
A. Static
B. Auto-RP
C. Dynamic-RP
D. Bootstrap router
Answer: ABD

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NO.9 What is the administrative scoping address range associated with global scope?
A. 224.0.0.0/24
B. 239.128.0.0/10
C. 239.192.0.0/14
D. 224.0.1.0?38.255.255.255
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which multicast mode does Auto-RP require?
A. Link-mode
B. Dense mode
C. Sparse mode D. Sparse-dense mode
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which LSA is the Type 10?
A. Router LSA
B. Opaque LSA
C. AS attributes LSA
D. ASBR summary LSA
E. Network summary LSA
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are two commands that can be used to configure MBGP for multicast? (choose two)
A. Under the BGP group, configure family inet any
B. Use the set protocol MBGP command to enable MBGP
C. Under the BGP group, configure family inet multicast
D. Use the set rib-group command to copy the multicast routes into inet.1
Answer: AC

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NO.13 Which JUNOS software operational-mode command displays the status of a Draft-Martini VPN?
A. show ldp neighbor
B. show martini connections
C. show l2circuit connections
D. show l2vpn connections
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which two steps are required for a Kompella Layer 2 VPN? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a site ID for each CE
B. Configure a VPN label for each VPN
C. Configure a MP-BGP session to each PE
D. Configure an Extended LDP Session to each PE
Answer: AC

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NO.15 In what PIM topology would you use MSDP within a single domain?
A. Auto-RP
B. Anycast RP
C. Bootstrap router
D. PIM sparse mode
Answer: B

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NO.16 In JUNOS software, what is required to redistribute RIP routes into OSPF?
A. Apply an export policy in RIP.
B. Apply an import policy in RIP.
C. Apply an export policy in OSPF.
D. Apply an import policy in OSPF.
Answer: C

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NO.17 An OSPF non-backbone area allows external routes to be flooded within the area. These external
routes are
propagated into other areas. However, external routes from other areas are not allowed to enter this area.
Which type of
OSPF area does this describe?
A. stub area
B. transit area
C. border area
D. not-so-stubby area
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which represents a correct PE-PE BGP configuration for an L3 VPN?
A. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
neighbor 192.168.16.1;
}
B. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
family inet {
any;
}
neighbor 192.168.16.1; }
C. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
family inet {
unicast;
}
family inet-vpn {
unicast;
neighbor 192.168.16.1;
}
D. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
family inet {
13-vpn;
}
neighbor 192.168.16.1;
}
Answer: C

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NO.19 PE1 has connections to VPN sites that are served by three remote PE routers. How many LSP's must
be established to support 2547bis?
A. an LSP for each local CE device
B. an LSP for each remote PE device
C. an LSP for each remote CE device
D. an LSP for each CE facing interface
Answer: B

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NO.20 In JUNOS software, which type of VPN supports IPX and Appletalk?
A. Martini based VPN's
B. 2547bis based VPN's
C. Sham link based VPN's
D. Virtual Router based VPN's
Answer: A

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