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Exam Code: 640-816
Exam Name: Cisco (Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 222 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-21

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NO.1 The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6.
What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)
A. no broadcast
B. change of source address in the IPv6 header
C. change of destination address in the IPv6 header
D. Telnet access does not require a password
E. autoconfiguration
F. NAT
Answer: AE

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NO.2 The network technician is planning to use the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask on the network.
Which three valid IP addresses can the technician use for the hosts? (Choose three.)
A. 172.22.243.127
B. 172.22.243.190
C. 172.22.243.191
D. 192.168.1.160
E. 10.17.64.34
F. 10.16.33.98
Answer: BEF

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit?
(Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same
encapsulation type.
Answer: DF

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NO.4 Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
B. FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
C. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
D. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69
Answer: A

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NO.5 A department decides to replace its hub with a Catalyst 2950 switch that is no longer needed by another
department. To prepare the switch for installation, the network administrator has erased the startup
configuration and reloaded the switch. However, PCs that are connected to the switch experience various
connectivity problems. What is a possible cause of the problem?
A. The VLAN database was not erased.
B. The management VLAN is disabled.
C. The running configuration should have been erased.
D. The "mode" button was not pressed when the switch was reloaded.
E. The switch was not configured with an IP address or a default gateway.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the cause of
this failure?
A. A Level 5 password is not set.
B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.
C. The vty password is missing.
D. The console password is missing.
Answer: C

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NO.7 How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be
configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode access
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
C. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Answer: D

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NO.8 A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses,
up to the maximum defined.
D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running
configuration.
E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice
VLAN.
Answer: CD

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NO.9 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Answer: BC

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NO.10 An administrator is troubleshooting a problem between routers that are using different versions of RIP.
Which two commands would provide information about which version of RIP was being sent and received
on an interface? (Choose two.)
A. show ip protocols
B. show ip route rip
C. show interfaces
D. debug rip routing
E. debug ip rip
Answer: AE

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NO.11 At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It converges quickly.
B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C. It uses cost to determine the best route.
D. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
E. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.
F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.
Answer: ACF

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NO.13 What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch
reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed
locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision
number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent
mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP
servers.
Answer: CF

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NO.14 What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?
A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24
Answer: B

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NO.15 Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco
switches?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. RSTP
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Answer: BE

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NO.18 The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the
graphic.
There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of
examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the
default and the router IDs are shown with each router.
Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)
A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Answer: DF

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NO.19 Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the output of the R1# show ip route command and the information presented in the graphic,
which of the following is a potential routing problem?
A. the use of summarization for discontiguous networks
B. the use of CIDR with a routing protocol that does not support it
C. the use of VLSM with a routing protocol that does not support it
D. the use of the no auto-summary command with a protocol that does not support summarization
E. the use of the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command with a routing protocol that does not support it
Answer: A

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NO.20 The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1.
What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)
A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.
E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be
forwarded out fa0/1.
F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be
forwarded out fa0/1.
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: 642-611
Exam Name: Cisco (CCIP Implementing Cisco MPLS Exam (MPLS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 509 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-21

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NO.1 BGP is used as the CE-PE routing protocol in an MPLS VPN. The customer routes are
successfully propagated from the CE router to the ingress PE router, but they are not showing up
on the egress PE router. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A.There is a BGP-to-MPBGP redistribution error on the ingress PE router.
B.There is a MPBGP-to-BGP redistribution error on the egress PE router.
C.One of the P routers is performing route summarization, breaking the path between the ingress and the
egress PE routers into two LSPs.
D.RTs attached to the CE routes exported by the ingress router are not matched by at least one of the
import RTs on the egress PE router.
E.A route reflector is used to propagate the routes from the ingress PE router to the egress PE router,
thus breaking the LSP.
Correct:D

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NO.2 When nonadjacent LDP neighbors are used for implementing an MPLS traffic engineering
solution, how are the nonadjacent LDP neighbors discovered?
A.using multicast CR-LSP (constraint-based LSP)
B.using unicast CR-LSP (constraint-based LSP)
C.using multicast LDP hello messages
D.using unicast LDP hello messages
E.using multihop MP-IBGP
F.using multihop MP-EBGP
Correct:D

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NO.3 In the diagram, the Internet is accessed through a dedicated Internet VPN implementation.
Which routing table will PE-IG use to forward packets from the Internet to Site-2?
A.Global routing table
B.VPNv4 routing table
C.VRF A routing table
D.VRF Internet routing table
Correct:D

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NO.4 Look at the picture.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice6---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice6

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit. A diagram of a router connected to an MPLS-enabled ATM switch via an
LC-ATM MPLS interface, and a partial configuration for the MPLS-enabled ATM switch and router
are shown. Which statement describes what is incorrect about the configuration shown?
A.CEF has not been enabled on the router.
B.The VPI range of 2-3 is invalid.
C.The control VPI/VCI has not been set to 0/32 on the router.
D.VC-merge has not been enabled on the ATM switch interface.
E.The router has not been configured to specifically use LDP.
Correct:A

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NO.6 Which three statements are correct regarding Layer 2 overlay VPNs and peer-to-peer VPNs?
(Choose three.)
A.Peer-to-peer VPNs require the establishment of virtual circuits to connect the different customer sites
together.
B.Peer-to-peer VPNs require the service provider to participate in the customer routing, accepting
customer routes, transporting them across the service provider backbone, and finally propagating them to
other customer sites.
C.With peer-to-peer VPNs, the service provider is responsible for transport of Layer 2 frames between
customer sites, and the customer takes responsibility for all higher layers.
D.The implementation of Layer 2 overlay VPNs is the traditional switched-WAN model, implemented with
technologies like X.25, Frame Relay or ATM.
E.With Layer 2 overlay VPNs, the service provider is not aware of customer routing and has no
information about customer routes.
F.It is simple to implement Layer 2 overlay VPNs because the Customer Edge (CE) router just needs a
connection to the Service Provider's Provider Edge (PE) router.
Correct:B D E

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NO.7 What is a benefit of CEF switching?
A.CEF supports IP source prefix-based switching using the FIB.
B.CEF uses less memory than fast switching uses.
C.CEF is less CPU intensive than fast switching is.
D.CEF provides Netflow statistics with minimum CPU overhead.
E.CEF allows multiple data planes to share a common control plane.
Correct:C

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NO.8 Look at the picture.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice9---->Yellow Choice3

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NO.9 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the show outputs, which condition could be preventing the P1
router from establishing TDP adjacency with its neighbor over the s0/0.211 and s0/0.212
subinterfaces?
A.The s0/0.211 and s0/0.212 subinterfaces line protocol are in the down state.
B.The P1 router cannot establish a TCP session with its neighbors.
C.The P1 router is missing the mpls label protocol LDP command.
D.The show mpls tdp neighbor command needs to be used to view the TDP neighbor status.
Correct:B

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NO.10 What is a major drawback of using traditional IP routing over an ATM network when connecting
multiple sites?
A.Each ATM switch in the path has to perform Layer 3 routing lookup.
B.ATM virtual circuits have to be established between the different sites.
C.There is high ATM management overhead between the ATM switch and the router at each site.
D.Each ATM switch has to be manually configured to participate in Layer 3 routing.
E.There is high PNNI overhead.
Correct:B

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NO.11 What is the difference in implementation between a managed CE services MPLS VPN and a
central services MPLS VPN?
A.RD assignment
B.selective routes export
C.selective routes import
D.MP-BGP route redistribution filtering
E.CE-PE routing process
F.none
Correct:B

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NO.12 What best describes the following configuration example of allowas-in? router bgp 100
address-family ipv4 vrf CustomerAneighbor 195.12.4.5 remote-as 123 neighbor 195.12.4.5
activateneighbor 195.12.4.5 allowas-in 2
A.permits incoming BGP updates defined by access-list 2
B.permits incoming BGP updates defined by class-map 2
C.permit incoming BGP updates defined by route-map 2
D.permits incoming BGP updates with no more than two occurrences of AS 100 in the AS path
E.permits incoming BGP updates with no more than two occurrences of AS 123 in the AS path
Correct:D

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NO.13 Refer to the diagram. What problem can be caused by the second P router summarizing the
loopback address of the egress PE router?
A.The first P router will be faced with a VPN label which it does not understand.
B.The second P router will be faced with a VPN label which it does not understand.
C.The egress PE router will not be able to establish a label switch path (LSP) to the ingress PE router.
D.A label switch path (LSP) will be established from the ingress PE router to the egress PE router, an
event that is not desirable.
E.The ingress PE router will not be able to receive the VPN label from the egress PE router via MP-IBGP.
Correct:B

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NO.14 What are three characteristics of overlay VPNs? (Choose three.)
A.Service provider infrastructure appears as point-to-point links to the customer routers.
B.Routing protocols run directly between the customer routers.
C.Implementing optimum routing between customer sites requires a partial mesh of virtual circuits.
D.Service provider PE routers use route filtering to isolate between different customers.
E.Service provider does not participate in customer routing.
Correct:A B E

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NO.15 Lab.
Correct:

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NO.16 In the diagram, Internet access is through a dedicated subinterface implementation. Which of
its routing tables will PE-2 use to forward packets from Site-2 to Site-1?
A.the global routing table
B.the VPNv4 routing table
C.the VRF A routing table
D.the VRF A FIB
E.the PE-IG routing table
Correct:C

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NO.17 Refer to the exhibit. How many different VRFs are required to support the given connectivity
requirements? Sites CE1A and CE1B require connectivity to each other. Sites CE2A and CE2B
require connectivity to each other. Site CE1C requires connectivity to sites CE1A, CE1B, CE3A,
and CE3B. Site CE2C requires connectivity to sites CE2A, CE2B, CE3A, and CE3B. Sites CE3A and
CE3B require connectivity to each other and to CE1C and CE2C.
A.3 VRFs
B.4 VRFs
C.5 VRFs
D.6 VRFs
E.8 VRFs
Correct:C

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NO.18 With MPLS VPNs, if the CE-PE routing protocol is BGP, which statement below is true?
A.The different customer sites must use different autonomous system numbers.
B.Manual route redistribution between EBGP and MP-BGP is required.
C.The SOO extended BGP community can be used to prevent routing loops.
D.A BGP virtual sham-link is required between the customer site's CE routers to ensure optimal routing
between the customer sites.
E.The customer's autonomous system number must match the MPLS VPN service provider's
autonomous system number.
Correct:C

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NO.19 Refer to the exhibit. A diagram of a router connected to an MPLS-enabled ATM switch via an
LC-ATM MPLS interface, and the partial configuration for the MPLS-enabled ATM switch and
router are shown. Which statement describes what is incorrect about the configuration?
A.The control VPI/VCI numbers do not match.
B.The ATM VPI range of 2-3 is invalid.
C.CEF has not been enabled on the router ATM 3/0.2 subinterface.
D.VC-merge has not been enabled on the switch ATM 0/1/2 interface.
E.The router has not been configured to specifically use LDP.
Correct:A

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NO.20 Which kind of link does a Layer 3 overlay VPN use?
A.emulated point-to-point
B.dedicated point-to-point
C.point-to-multipoint
D.permanent virtual circuits
Correct:A

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Exam Code: 650-621
Exam Name: Cisco (Advanced Wireless LAN)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-21

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NO.1 Which service component within the prepare phase provides a technology-focused and/or
business-focused demonstration of the wireless technology solution to highlight the features and benefits?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following.
A. High-Level Design Development
B. Customer Education
C. Technology Strategy Development
D. Proposal Delivery
E. Proof of Concept
Answer: B

Cisco   650-621   650-621 test answers   650-621

NO.2 Which two service components are performed during the wireless implement phase? (Choose two.)
Select exactly 21 answer(s) from the following:
A. Wireless Readiness Assessment
B. Project Planning
C. Site Readiness Specification
D. Systems Acceptance Testing
E. Configuration Management
Answer: BD

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NO.3 The activity of identifying the customer ¯ s suppo rt m ode l f o r W LAN i s pa rt o f w h i ch se r v i ce co m ponen t i n
the plan phase? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Operations Readiness Assessment
B. Site Readiness assessment
C. Proposal Delivery
D. Account Planning
Answer: A

Cisco test   650-621   650-621

NO.4 °I n t he w ir e l ess des i gn phase , w h i ch se r v i ce co m ponen t p r ov i des a co m p r ehens i ve ,
implementation-ready design for the customer ¯ s w ir e l ess so l u ti on ¡± S el e c t exa c t ly 1 an sw e r (s ) f r o m t h
following:
A. Business Plan
B. Staging Plan
C. Detailed Design Development
D. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following WLAN service components all occur in the prepare phase?
A. High-level Design, Proof of Concept, Technology Strategy Development
B. System Requirements Validation, WLAN wired Network Integration Assessment, Operations
Readiness Assessment
C. Proposal Development, Customer Education, Service Assurance
D. Security Assessment, Security Administration, Staging Plan Development
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 646-230
Exam Name: Cisco (Advanced Unified Communications AM)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-21

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NO.1 An account manager requires an easy-to-use, web-enabled tool to demonstrate to a prospective
customer the benefits of a converged network in terms of productivity enhancements and real
estate savings. What should the account manager use?
A.Cisco ROI analysis
B.Cisco CNIC
C.business case from the industry of the prospect
D.customized hurdle rate analysis
Correct:B

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NO.2 A company's mission is to support its customers' technical needs. Its consultants work from
home or on site. They must often work in teams to exchange information about new products and
implementations. Choose the Cisco Unified Communications tool, features, and functions that will
best support this company's goal.
A.Unified Messaging, delivering every voice, email, and fax message into a single inbox
B.Presence, providing information about consultants, such as availability and busy status
C.Collaboration, bringing together voice, video, and web conferencing
D.Contact Center solutions, delivering intelligent contact routing, desktop and telephony integration, and
multichannel contact management
Correct:C

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NO.3 An emerging airline in South Asia wants to enhance its customer responsiveness. It already
has a web portal by means of which it offers online booking and reservation of tickets. In addition,
it would like to integrate a service by which customers can dial in via phone and be guided
through an interactive audio dialog allowing them to make reservations or book flight connections.
Which Cisco Unified Communications solution would be the best for this issue?
A.Cisco Unified Presence with integration of Microsoft Office Communicator
B.Cisco Unity with unified messaging and integrated call handlers
C.Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal with VoiceXML
D.Cisco Unified MeetingPlace with IBM Lotus Notes integration
Correct:C

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NO.4 Which feature is handled outside of Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A.call processing
B.signaling and device control
C.dial plan administration
D.RTP media path switching
E.directory services
F.programming interface to external applications
Correct:D

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NO.5 Which two statements regarding the advantages and benefits of security implementations in
Cisco Unified Communications solutions are true? (Choose two.)
A.The Cisco 1861 Integrate Services Router provides built-in security with hardware encryption and
decryption.
B.Voice clients are critical elements in the Cisco Self-Defending Network, which integrates security
throughout all aspects of the network.
C.Cisco Unified IP phones provide Extensible Markup Language (XML) capabilities to extend security
functions on a phone.
D.Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is runs on Linux in order to protect against
vulnerabilities and attacks.
Correct:A B

Cisco braindump   646-230 test answers   646-230 study guide   646-230 answers real questions

NO.6 Which sales tool provides a Microsoft Excel spreadsheet to calculate cost savings that can be
realized from a Cisco Unified Communication implementation?
A.Cisco CNIC
B.Cisco ROI methodology
C.needs-based competitive differentiator
D.computer telephony integration analyzer
Correct:B

Cisco braindump   646-230 test answers   646-230 study guide   646-230 answers real questions

NO.7 Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express and Cisco Unified
Communications Manager is correct?
A.Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is router-based and Cisco Unified Communications
Manager scales up to 240 users.
B.Cisco Unified Communications Manager is router-based and scales up to 24000 users.
C.Cisco Unified Communications Manager is server-based and scales up to 24000 users.
D.Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is router-based and Cisco Unified Communications
Manager scales up to 30000 users.
E.Cisco Unified Communications Manager is server-based and Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Express scales up to 300 users.
Correct:D

Cisco braindump   646-230 test answers   646-230 study guide   646-230 answers real questions

NO.8 Which of these Cisco Unified Communications products will most increase employee
productivity?
A.Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B.Cisco Unified Operations Manager
C.Cisco Unified MeetingPlace
D.Integrated Service Router
Correct:C

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NO.9 Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express would be most appropriate for which potential
customer?
A.an organization that needs to support a large number of teleworkers
B.a global organization with many offices around the world
C.an organization with several regional and branch offices
D.a small organization with approximately 100 employees
Correct:D

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NO.10 Which three statements about Cisco Unified MeetingPlace are true? (Choose three.)
A.Cisco Unified MeetingPlace software can be installed on an MCS server platform.
B.Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Audio Server must be installed on an MCS server platform.
C.In order to implement video conferencing, you will need the Cisco Unified VC35xx series.
D.Cisco Unified MeetingPlace is a purely software-based solution.
E.Cisco Unified MeetingPlace is scalable up to 1000 simultaneous web conferences.
F.Cisco Unified MeetingPlace only supports voice and video conferences.
Correct:A C E

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Exam Code: 642-655
Exam Name: Cisco (WAASFE-Wide Area Application Services for Field Engineers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-21

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NO.1 What important troubleshooting information will you draw for the Video Accelerator from the
WAE#show stat accelerator video?
A. Whether or not the WAE(Config)#accelerator video enable command has been issued
B. Troubleshooting of the Video Accelerator can only be done through the Central Manager GUI
C. The total Non-Windows Media and Non-Live Video Streams
D. The license status of the Video Accelerator
Answer: C

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NO.2 In which two ways will you register and activate a WAE to the Central Manager? (Choose two.)
A. WAE(Config)#cms enable do active
B. The auto-activate icon in the Central Manager
C. WAE(Config)#cms enable
D. The quickstart setup procedure
Answer: CD

Cisco   642-655   642-655 questions   642-655 demo   642-655

NO.3 How to verify that the WAE has joined a Microsoft Windows domain correctly?
A. Click the Show Authentication Status button in Central Manager
B. Use the Windowsnetstat command
C. Use the Windowsnbtstat command
D. Execute the show windows-domain command on the WAE
Answer: A

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NO.4 Exhibit:
Based on the following exhibit. Which two are the possible reasons the CORE1 WAE might be displayed
as "Offline"?
A. The Central Manager service is disabled
B. The WAE is powered off
C. The WAE is configured in the same VLAN as the server nodes
D. The HTTPS service is disabled
Answer: AB

Cisco   642-655   642-655 answers real questions

NO.5 Exhibit:
You work as a network engineer at Your company. You study the exhibit carefully.
A WAE in your environment is experiencing no HTTP acceleration. What is the problem according to the
output from the Central Manager?
A. HTTP and Video Accelerators cannot be enabled at the same time
B. The HTTP Accelerator is not enabled
C. DRE eliminates all need for HTTP acceleration
D. The Enterprise license is not installed
Answer: B

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NO.6 Within Windows Server on WAAS, what are the Cisco-supported features? (Choose all that apply)
A. Active Directory
B. DNS
C. Windows Printing
D. DHCP
E. Internet Explorer
F. FTP services
G. Windows Media Streaming
Answer: ABCD

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NO.7 Your customer has recently completed a large expansion of one of their regional offices. They have
discovered that the WAE-512-2GB Edge WAE in that office has begun passing through some TCP
connections without optimizing those connections. What two actions would solve the problem? (Choose
two.)
A. Add more memory to the WAE
B. Add another WAE-512 edge WAE
C. Upgrade to a WAE-612 or WAE-7326
D. Bundle the WAE interfaces into a PortChannel
Answer: BC

Cisco questions   642-655 pdf   642-655

NO.8 Which setting should be used in the "Boot from" filed in the virtual blade configuration when an
operating system is first installed through an CD ISO image onto a virtual blade?
A. /local1/vbs/win2k8.iso
B. WAAS /local1/loca/vb folder
C. Floppy Disk
D. CD-ROM
E. hard disk
Answer: D

Cisco   642-655   642-655   642-655 exam

NO.9 How to monitor optimization statistics for a given application across multiple WAE devices?
A. Create a separate application traffic policy for each application
B. Create a location group for all WAE devices on which that application is optimized
C. Ensure that each application resides on a different subnet
D. Create a device group for all WAE devices on which that application is optimized
Answer: D

Cisco   642-655   642-655 questions   642-655

NO.10 Which three must be configured when you configure an edge print queue? (Choose three.)
A. WAFS edge service
B. EPM Policy
C. Printer Name
D. device URL
Answer: ACD

Cisco   642-655 questions   642-655 braindump   642-655

NO.11 How many baseline device groups can be configured for the acceleration feature set?
A. Three
B. One
C. As many as needed
D. Two
Answer: B

Cisco   642-655 exam   642-655

NO.12 Exhibit:
You work as a network engineer at Your company. You study the exhibit carefully.When troubleshooting
video licensing on a WAE, this Central Manager output is displayed.
Which two steps should be taken to enable the video license? (Choose two.)
A. Restart the WAE
B. Select the Enterprise Check Box
C. Select the Video Check Box
D. Select the Virtual-Blade Check Box
Answer: BC

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NO.13 Which command verifies that a WAE in-line card is intercepting traffic from the correct VLANs?
A. show wccp services
B. show wccp vlans inline
C. show int inlinegroup x/y
D. show ip access-lists
Answer: C

Cisco demo   642-655   642-655   642-655

NO.14 Exhibit:
You work as a network engineer at Your company. You study the exhibit carefully.
The following diagram displays the Cisco WAAS configuration for your customer. Which WCCPv2
interception configuration should be applied to interface Serial0?
A. Redirect in / service group 62
B. Redirect out / service group 62
C. Redirect in / service group 61
D. Redirect out/service group 61
Answer: A

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NO.15 The Cisco WAE Appliances provide a unified platform for hosting Cisco application acceleration and
WAN optimization solutions. Your customer complains that traffic has never been received by the remote
WAE device after deploying Cisco WAAS by use of WCCPv2 in an off-path configuration. Which two
parameters should be verified? (Choose two.)
A. Routing Configuration
B. Router IP Address
C. WCCP Status
D. Service group redirection
Answer: CD

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Exam Code: 646-671
Exam Name: Cisco (Advanced Wireless LAN for Account Managers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-21

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NO.1 The CIO of a small, commercial company wants to learn about the cost benefits of enabling
voice-over-Wi-Fi services. How do you describe the service to him?
Select the best response.
A. Voice-over-Wi-Fi that is integrated into the wired network allows a single control point to guarantee the
quality of the call, regardless of the transport over which the call is carried. This leads to significant cost
savings.
B. Voice-over-Wi-Fi provides continued cost savings through the convergence of communications
devices.
C. With voice-over-Wi-Fi, the Cisco Unified wireless solution supports quality of service.
D. With voice-over-Wi-Fi, the telephony system recognizes Wi-Fi handsets in the same way that it
recognizes traditional desktop phones, which allows employees to make and receive calls when they are
mobile.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two of the following are primary benefits of voice-over-Wi-Fi services? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. reduced cellular phone costs
B. reduced cost of replacing lost assets
C. increased employee productivity
D. a single profile across all network types
E. enhanced 911 services for tracking cellular users
Answer: AC

Cisco   646-671   646-671

NO.3 Ray Thomas, a global sales manager at a mid-sized, commercial company, is on his way from the
conference room to his office. At the same time, a client who wants to complete a large business
transaction with Ray's company is trying to reach Ray by phone. The Cisco Unified Communications
System determines that Ray is not at his desk and automatically routes the call to his current location.
Ray accepts the call while walking back to his office. After he arrives, he transparently transfers the call to
his desk phone, freeing his hands to access the information on his computer to complete the transaction.
Which of the following services enables this scenario?
Select the best response.
A. location-based services
B. voice-over-Wi-Fi
C. guest access
D. Intrusion Protection Services
Answer: B

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NO.4 A growing retail company with 600 employees is considering a Cisco Unified Wireless Network solution.
In meeting with many members of the executive team, you have learned that the main concern of the
company is the lack of time that the sales staff has on the sales floor to interact with customers because
of time spent doing inventory management. Which of the following is the most appropriate point to focus
on when proposing a Cisco Unified Wireless Network solution to the executive team of the company?
Select the best response.
A. With the Cisco solution, you can provide voice-over-Wi-Fi phones to all your staff for free, which
improves their productivity, allowing them to spend more time with customers.
B. With the Cisco solution, you can enable mobile applications, which provide tangible cost savings and
return on investment (ROI) through improved productivity.
C. The Cisco solution allows sales staff to do inventory ordering right at the product shelf, which increases
the opportunities for customer interactions and raises the possibility of higher sales.
D. The Cisco solution enables improved productivity due to mobility, which leads to quicker inventory
management.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which three of the following are technology components of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network?
(Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. unified advanced services
B. Self-Defending Network
C. network fault management
D. mobility platform
E. network management
F. wireless handsets
Answer: ADE

Cisco   646-671 original questions   646-671 questions

NO.6 A growing retail company needs to become PCI-compliant. Which of the following services enables
this?
Select the best response.
A. location-based services
B. voice-over-Wi-Fi
C. enhanced security
D. RFID asset tracking services
Answer: C

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NO.7 An enterprise company hires a management consultant, Mary Hunt, to improve corporate
knowledge-management systems. The role requires her to be highly mobile within the enterprise as she
gathers information from a variety of employees. When Mary is back at her desk, she must compare her
new data with the data hosted on the corporate servers. After she logs in, the network recognizes her
consultant status and allocates her the appropriate access rights.
Which of the following enables this scenario?
Select the best response.
A. location-based services
B. guest access
C. enhanced security
D. network admission control (NAC)
Answer: B

Cisco exam   646-671 questions   646-671 test answers

NO.8 A small healthcare facility often misplaces expensive assets, such as IV pumps and wheelchairs. To
solve this problem, the facility placed Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) tags on its valuable property.
Now when pieces of equipment are missing, employees can determine their exact location within minutes
using a Cisco Wireless Control System management interface.
Which of the following services enables this scenario?
Select the best response.
A. enhanced security
B. Voice over Wi-Fi
C. location-based services
D. WCS mapping and tracking
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which three of the following benefits are the primary benefits of location-based services? (Choose
three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. reduced cellular phone costs
B. increased employee productivity
C. reduced cost of replacing lost assets
D. streamlined business processes
E. a single profile across all network types
F. Radio Resource Management
Answer: BCD

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NO.10 Which two components would you find in a WLAN? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. fiber-optic cabling
B. access points
C. high-speed satellite transmissions
D. client adapters
E. MPLS Networks
Answer: BD

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