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Exam Code: ST0-079
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is the recommended hard-drive size for a scanner-only virtual machine?
A.60GB
B.80GB
C.100GB
D.160GB
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A.It provides message management services.
B.It routes messages for delivery.
C.It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D.It downloads virus definitions.
E.It runs filters.
ANSWER: AC

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NO.3 Which feature of Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 detects Non-Delivery Reports (NDR) created by an
attacker?
A.Directory Harvest Attack
B.Anti-Phishing Filter
C.Bounce Attack Prevention
D.Symantec Probe Network
ANSWER: C

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NO.4 What is the minimum required memory size for virtual machine deployments?
A.1GB
B.2GB
C.4GB
D.6GB
ANSWER: B

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NO.5 What are two parts of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A.Message Store
B.LDAP Sync Service
C.Brightmail Engine
D.LiveUpdate Conduit
E.Suspect Virus Quarantine
ANSWER: BE

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NO.6 An administrator has navigated through Status -> LDAP Synchronization.
Which tab will display details about an LDAP Synchronization?
A.LDAP to Scanners
B.LDAP to CC
C.LDAP Status
D.CC to LDAP
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 True file typing is a feature used to combat which behavior?
A.spamming
B.renaming
C.phishing
D.spimming
ANSWER: B

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NO.8 What is the Heuristic Detection (Bloodhound) feature designed to detect?
A.unknown viruses
B.fuzzy matches against compliance rules
C.regex matches
D.Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
ANSWER: B

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NO.9 Which feature requires Invalid Recipient Handling to be enabled?
A.Bounce Attack Prevention
B.Directory Harvest Attack recognition
C.Reputation Lookup
D.Fastpass
ANSWER: B

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NO.10 Which service retrieves new and updated email filters from Symantec Security Response through
HTTPS file transfer?
A.LiveUpdate
B.Conduit
C.Brightmail Engine
D.MTA
ANSWER: B

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NO.11 Spam Rule sets are automatically downloaded from Symantec on a regular basis.
How often are these rule sets refreshed?
A.every 5 to 10 minutes
B.every 30 to 60 minutes
C.every 3 to 5 hours
D.every day
ANSWER: A

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NO.12 What happens to a message that is forwarded to the Suspect Virus Quarantine?
A.It is automatically deleted after one week.
B.It is rescanned when the configured hold time has elapsed.
C.It is placed in the administrator's queue for review.
D.It is forwarded to Symantec Security Response.
ANSWER: B

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NO.13 Which MTA operation is used if incoming messages need to be stopped while waiting for new virus
definitions?
A.Accept and deliver messages normally
B.Pause message scanning and delivery
C.Do not accept incoming messages
D.Accept but do not scan incoming messages
ANSWER: B

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NO.14 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A.Accept and deliver messages normally
B.Pause message scanning and delivery
C.Do not accept incoming messages
D.Accept but do not scan incoming messages
ANSWER: C

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NO.15 Which two email authentication technologies are included in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0?
(Select two.)
A.Sender ID
B.POP before SMTP
C.Domain Keys Identified Mail (DKIM)
D.Certified Email
E.Sender Policy Framework (SPF)
ANSWER: AE

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NO.16 What does the Fastpass feature do?
A.skips virus scanning for known viruses
B.skips resource intensive spam scanning steps
C.passes incoming mail directly to the downstream MTA
D.bypasses scanning on outgoing mail
ANSWER: B

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NO.17 In addition to storing messages for Spam Quarantine and Suspect Virus Quarantine, which type of
messages can the Control Center store?
A.notification messages
B.compliance triggered messages
C.delivered messages
D.deleted messages
ANSWER: B

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NO.18 Which two tasks are performed by the SMTP session component of the MTA? (Select two.)
A.It verifies the IP address reputation with the BMServer.
B.It performs aliasing/masquerading for messages.
C.It reports the message as spam.
D.It applies the specified queue thresholds.
E.It interacts with the BMServer to access the filtering modules.
ANSWER: BD

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NO.19 To reach Message Audit logs, which tab should be selected in the Brightmail Control Center?
A.Status
B.Administration
C.Reports
D.Compliance
ANSWER: A

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NO.20 A client needs to import structured customer data.
Which resource is used for this requirement?
A.records
B.dictionaries
C.regular expressions
D.patterns
ANSWER: A

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Exam Code: ST0-10X
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 5 for Unix (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 198 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is the default limit to the number of subdisks that can be attached to a single plex?
A.1024
B.2048
C.4096
D.Unlimited
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are working with the Storage Foundation Intelligent Storage Provisioning feature, to create a new
mirrored volume. To prevent system failure, you want to ensure that you are able to perform a recovery of
mirrored volumes in minimum response time.
What should you do?
A.Create a Dirty Region Log.
B.Create a Data Change Map log.
C.Create a RAID-5 log.
D.Create a Snap object log.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You place six physical disks under Volume Manager control to create 10GB of volume. You want to
use this volume as an archive directory. You need to create a volume that will store three copies of the
archived data. Which command will you use to create a volume with three plexes?
A.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
B.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
C.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
D.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
Answer: C

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NO.4 How many free partitions do you need to encapsulate a boot disk?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.5 The 'Administer' button in the Storage Foundation Management Server user interface for a host is
continually red, and the vxsvc32 agent is listed as DOWN.
How do you solve this problem?
A.Reconfigure the Storage Foundation management Server.
B.Reinstall the agent.
C.Restart Storage Foundation Management Server.
D.Change the types.ini configuration file on the Central Management Server.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which physical storage device is the equivalent to a virtual volume?
A.A disk
B.A partition
C.A block
D.A directory
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the minimum number of plexes required for true mirroring to provide redundancy of data?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are auditing a current storage environment that is not utilizing storage tiering. The information
gained from the audit is to be used in a new storage tiering design that will have 4 tiers (Tiers 1-4). You
need to determine the location for archive data which needs to be accessible but is not used heavily.
Where should you store this data?
A.Tier 1: High-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
B.Tier 2: High-end arrays, but performance is not a priority.
C.Tier 3: Mid-range to low-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
D.Tier 4: low-cost media, such as tape, with little consideration given to performance.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two restrictions does relayout place on the administration of a volume while it is in progress?
(Select two.)
A.During a relayout, you cannot create a sparse plex.
B.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of mirrors in a volume.
C.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of subdisks in a volume.
D.During a relayout, you cannot create a snapshot of a volume.
E.During a relayout, you cannot create a backup of a volume.
Answer: AD

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NO.10 Which command will you use to determine the operating mode of vxconfigd?
A.vxdctl enable
B.vxdctl mode
C.vxmode
D.ps -ef |grep vxconfig
Answer: B

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NO.11 You have installed Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard server with a number of hosts. You want to
centrally monitor and manage the hosts. You also want to generate reports for the hosts and the storage
resources that the hosts consume. What should you do?
A.Install the Veritas Quick I/O option on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
B.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Server on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
C.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Host on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
D.Upgrade Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard to Storage Foundation 5.0 Enterprise.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which form of Disk Spanning allows you to map data in equally-sized chunks alternating across
multiple disks and is also known as interleaving?
A.Striping
B.Concatenation
C.Mirroring
D.Parity
Answer: A

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NO.13 You are responsible for administering the Storage Foundation for Sybase server. You want to remove a
mounted volume. What should you do first to ensure you are able to remove the mounted volume?
A.Remove the snapshot from the associated volume.
B.Recursively remove all plexes and subdisks.
C.Disassociate the snapshot from the associated volume.
D.Unmount the file system.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You need to create a volume for the HR department. You need to mount a file system with a high
demand for I/O throughput. You are aware that spanning the volume across multiple disks will increase
the I/O performance. Which risk should you be aware of when spanning the volume across multiple
disks?
A.Write throughput degradation
B.Single disk failure causes volume failure
C.Requirement for disk redundancy
D.Poor I/O performance
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which structure records are stored in the private region? (Each correct Answer presents part of the
solution. Select three.)
A.Disk group configuration
B.Disk and disk group ID
C.File system metadata
D.Disk group kernel log
E.Partition tables
Answer: ABD

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NO.16 Which three are the database agents that are supported by Storage Foundation High Availability
version? (Select three.)
A.Informix
B.DB/2
C.Ingress
D.Oracle
E.Sybase
F.SQL
Answer: BDE

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NO.17 The vxprint command output for volume vol07 indicates that it has three plexes. How will you
determine which plexes are used for data?
A.Note the lengths. Data plexes are all the same length.
B.Note the STATE field. Non-data plexes will be indicated by the value: LOG.
C.Note the STATE field. Data plexes will be indicated by the value: MIRROR.
D.Note the RECORD TYPE field. Data plexes are designated with PL.
Answer: B

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NO.18 You are monitoring a file system on a Solaris operating system using Veritas Volume Manager when
the following kernel message appears: WARNING: msgcnt x: mesg 069: V-2-69: memory usage specified
by the vxfs:vxfs_ninode and vxfs:vx_bc_bufhwm parameters exceeds available memory; the system may
hang under heavy load. You need to resolve this error. What should you do?
A.Increase the value of one or both parameters to 100% of physical memory or to 100% of kernel virtual
memory
B.Remove either the physical memory parameter or the kernel virtual memory parameter.
C.Leave the parameters at current levels and disregard the system message because it is a false
message.
D.Reduce the value of one or both parameters to less than 50% of physical memory or to 66% of kernel
virtual memory
Answer: D

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NO.19 You want to allow non-layered volume to change to layered stripe-mirror volume while remaining online.
What is the correct procedure to perform this conversion?
A.Convert the volume, stop the volume, remount the file system, and start the volume.
B.Unmount the file system, stop the volume, convert the volume, start the volume, and remount the file
system.
C.Resync the volume, convert the volume, and mirror the volume.
D.Stop the volume and then convert the volume.
Answer: C

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NO.20 You have large number of mirrored volumes, and the resynchronization process on mirrored volumes
will take lot of time. You want to address enable Dirty Region Logging (DRL) and find out the cause why it
takes a long time for resynchronization. You want to check the status of DRL logging to see if it is already
enabled.
How will you accomplish this task?
A.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DCOVOL option
B.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DRLVOL option
C.Use the vxprint command with the -F%dcologging $DCOVOL option
D.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $$DCONAME option
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 250-400
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0)
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Total Q&A: 185 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 An administrator wants to install an operating system, boot-critical drrvers, and a particular piece of
software on a new machine. Which solution allows me administrator to accomplish this?
A. Deployment Solution 6.9
B. Deployment Solution 70
C. Software Management Solution
D. PC Transplant
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator has been tasked to upgrade an application on 6.000 computers. The application must
be available in exactly 30 days The 6.000 computers will continue using the current application until then.
Which method will cause the least impact on me network on the date the application needs to be available
A. import a Software Virtualization Solution layer on the computers now and activate the layer in 30 days
B. import and activate a SoftwareWtualizatlon Solution layer on the computers and schedule it To run in
30 clays
C. distribute me application and schedule it to runWi 30 days
D. distribute the application in increments of 200 computers starting tomorrow
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are two valid reasons for implementing a Managed Software Oelwery policy rather man a Quick
Delivery task'? (Select two.)
A. Software installation state enforcement Is required.
B. Software relationships are required.
C. Immediate softwaredelwery is required.
D. Distinguishing between physical and virtual software is required.
E. Online software update checking Is required
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which two relationships within me Software Catalog entry impact a Managed Software Delivery policy?
(Select two.)
A. supersedes
B. inherits
C. updates
D. requires
E. modifies
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which type of tile must me Deployment Console user select *tiile creating a PC Transplant task to
capture a computers personality?
A. .pbt
B. .xml
C. .zip
D. .exe
Answer: A

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NO.7 An end user requires delivery of a new application in a Software \'lrtualization Solutions (SVS) layer
and the administrator is unavailable. Which delivery method should the end user utilize?
A. Quick Delivery
B. Software Portal
C. Managed Delivery
D. Package Delivery
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator is attempting to roil out a new security application on au systems in their environment
Mari users are uninstalling me application once they detect it on their systems. The administrator would
like to enforce the application by reinstalling It whenever it is uninstalled by end users. What delivery
method should the administrator use to accomplish this goal?
A. Quick Delivery
B. Software Portal
C. Managed Delivery
D. Application Management
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two products are included In Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Ghost Solution Suite
B. Recovery Solution
C. Real-Time System Manager
D. Wise Package Studio
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: C,E

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NO.10 Which Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 component allows an administrator to track computer
resources before an AltEfls Agent is installed?
A. Patch Management
B. Application Discovery
C. Handheld Management
D. Network Discovery
Answer: C

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NO.11 What does me Application Management Component of Inventory Solution enable an administrator to
accomplish?
A. identil'y application usage on a particular computer
B. manage applications from either a white list or a black list
C. compare changes in files and the registry between two computers
D. back up registry keys from two different computers
Answer: C

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NO.12 An administrator is installing two applications Into the Virtualization Solutions (SVS) layer Application 1
installs on sever1, server2, and server3, Appllcation2 Installs on server1, and server4 How many
Managed Delivery policies are required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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(Select two.)
A. Deployment Solution
B. Wise Package Studio Pro
C. Application Management
D. Real-Time System Manager
E. Inventory Solution
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 A user has an application installed in a Software Virtualization Solution (SVS) layer Alter being used
for several days. the application becomes unstable What should the user do with the SVS layer to
stabilize the application?
A. deactivate and activate me SVS layer
B. resetth SVS layer
C. delete me layer and reinstall me application
D. uninstall the application fromAdthRemove Programs
Answer: B

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NO.15 An administrator wants to upgrade a users computer from Windows XP to Windows Vista.
incorporating PC Transplant The administrator needs to limit the amount of data to be copied across the
network clung this process Which switch setting type allows me administrator to accomplish this?
A. file preservation switches
B. cloning switches
C. image file switches
D. file system switches
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which solution is included with Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0?
A. Help Desk
B. backup Exec
C. pcAnyi4iere
D. Carbon Copy
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is a benefit of Wise SetupCapture?
A. prevents the installation ofmaiware on managed computers
B. detects the installation ofmaiware on managed computers
C. simplifies custom application installations
D. simplifies modification of application installers
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two solutions enable an administrator to back up a workstation and then install an application on
mat same wor5tatiOn (Select two)
A. Real-Time System Manager
B. Software Management Solution
C. Recovery Solution
D. Inventory Solution
E. Wise Package Studio Pro
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 When creating a Managed Software Delivery policy, a compliance check is scheduled. The
compliance check is based on which component?
A. the detection rule within the Software Catalog
B. Add/Remove Programs within Windows
C. me Software Inventory Report data for the remote system
D. me file information within the Software Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which type of PC Transplant file determines the application settings captured using FC Transplant?
A. POT
B. A21
C. .INI
D. XML
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-025
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Security Information Manager 4.5 (STS))
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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is the correct Symantec Security Information Manager incident identification pipeline?
A. collection --> normalization --> rule processing --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
B. normalization --> collection --> rule processing --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
C. rule processing --> normalization --> collection --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
D. attack tracing --> rule processing --> normalization --> collection --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are on-box collectors?
A. PIX, UNIX Syslog and Sygate
B. Checkpoint, Snort and PIX
C. PIX, Snort and Symantec Mail Security
D. Checkpoint, UNIX Syslog and Symantec Network Security
Answer: B

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NO.3 What information does the Correlation Manager use to identify and prioritize incidents?
A. DeepSight
B. event history
C. incident
D. assets
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three ratings does the Information Manager Assets Table use to quantify the importance of the
device and help determine how to escalate security incidents related to that device? (Choose three.)
A. Confidentiality
B. Criticality
C. Availability
D. Priority
E. Integrity
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.5 What is Device-level aggregation?
A. parsing data with data sensors
B. grouping data to reduce traffic and database size
C. forwarding event data to the appliance
D. event and log sensoring
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which Symantec Security Information Manager component retrieves security content from Symantec?
A. LiveUpdate
B. LiveUpdate and licensed DeepSight Integration Module simultaneously
C. Licensed DeepSight Integration Module
D. Security content retrieval is automatic.
Answer: C

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NO.7 In Symantec Security Information Manager, collectors send events to _____.
A. Event Disposition
B. Event Archive
C. Event Reporting
D. Event Logger
Answer: D

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NO.8 How do you install the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) Console?
A. on the SSIM DVD, go to Tools and install the client
B. go to the SSIM web interface, download the client and click Run
C. from the SSIM appliance, deploy the console to your machine
D. No installation is necessary because SSIM is a browser-based tool.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the purpose of normalization?
A. to minimize the number of events affecting multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize
the events more quickly
B. to correlate events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events equally
C. to standardize events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events
equally
D. to process the events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize the events
more quickly
Answer: C

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NO.10 Events that are filtered out remain stored in the ______.
A. Event Logger
B. Incident Repository
C. Event Archive
D. Incident History
Answer: D

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NO.11 Normalization provides a unique identifier for each type of event and _____.
A. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated incident
B. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated event
C. maps events to a device-specific signature
D. maps incidents to a device-specific signature
Answer: B

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NO.12 How can you determine which ports are potentially vulnerable on a given host in the Assets Table?
A. by running the NetScan user action on the asset
B. by looking at the Services tab on the asset
C. by viewing the Details tab for the asset
D. by running the Host Information report on the asset
Answer: B

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NO.13 When querying archived event data, how can you make a query available to other users of the system?
A. save it in Published Queries
B. save it in Public Templates
C. grant Read Query permission to the domain
D. check the Shared option on the saved query
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which two are commonly used to view archived events? (Choose two.)
A. Information Manager Event Viewer
B. Archive Management Console tab
C. Query Wizard
D. Incident Management Console tab
Answer: A, C

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NO.15 By default, event archives are stored for up to _____ days.
A. 10
B. 30
C. 60
D. 90
Answer: A

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NO.16 Where do you configure LiveUpdate for Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM)?
A. SSIM Start Page --> Configure Appliance --> LiveUpdate tab
B. SSIM Console --> Systems tab --> LiveUpdate tab
C. from a command prompt
D. SSIM Client --> Maintenance tab --> LiveUpdate tab
Answer: A

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NO.17 Once custom rules are properly defined, the Correlation Engine _____.
A. correlates events against the rule criteria, analyzes conclusions and creates impending incidents
B. analyzes events against the rule criteria, correlates with existing conclusions and creates the
impending incident
C. analyzes events against the rule criteria, creates conclusions and correlates conclusions into incidents
D. applies individual rules to events, analyzes conclusions and correlates events into incidents
Answer: C

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NO.18 What are two ways in which new entries can be added to the Assets Table of a Symantec Security
Information Manager solution? (Choose two.)
A. through the Lookup Tables pane of the Information Manager Console
B .importing from HP OpenView through the OpenView Integration feature
C. importing from a .CSV file exported from Active Directory
D. automatic population through a supported vulnerability scanner
Answer: C, D

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NO.19 Security data is continuously gathered from thousands of security sensors worldwide through the
integrated _____.
A. Symantec Security Information Manager
B. DeepSight Global Intelligence Network
C. Symantec Enterprise Security Manager
D. Symantec Sygate Solution
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which menu options do you select in the user interface to shut down or reboot the Symantec Security
Information Manager (SSIM) appliance?
A. System --> Shutdown/Restart
B. SSIM Console --> Shutdown/Restart
C. SSIM --> Configure Appliance --> Shutdown/Restart
D. SSIM Console --> Systems tab
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-12X
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Cluster Server 5 for Unix(STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is the location of the main Veritas Cluster Server configuration file?
A. /op/VRTSvcs/conf/config/
B. /etc/VRTSvcs/conf/
C./etc/VRTSvcs/conf/config/
D. /op/VRTSvcs/confi
Answer: C

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NO.2 During a test of a NIC resource, the Veritas Cluster Server engine log indicates that the service group
and the IP resource enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster. The NIC resource enters the
ONLINE state atter the root cause of the fault is corrected.
Which default attribute setting allows the service group to attempt to start without manual intervention?
A. AutoStart
B. AutoClear
C. AutoRestart
D. AutoFailover
Answer: C

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NO.3 How do you customize Veritas Cluster Server default behavior to alert someone whenever there is only
one heartbeat in a Veritas Cluster Server cluster?
A. The preinstalled violation trigger does this with no customization required.
B. Install the injeopardy trigger and customize it to perform the required alerting.
C. Configure the notifier to execute a customized script to perform the required alerting.
D. Develop a custom resource type and agent to monitor the Veritas Cluster Server heartbeat resources.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are designing a large Veritas Cluster Server cluster. One of the requirements from the service
level agreement is that applications will be automatically moved from one system to another if the first
system's processor usage exceeds a configured threshold value.
Which component do you incorporate into the design to accomplish this?
A. ToleranceLimit service group attribute
B. Load failover policy
C. cpuusage trigger
D. UseCPU cluster attribute
Answer: C

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NO.5 You stopped Veritas Cluster Server on system node13. You now need to remove this node from the
cluster configuration. When you attempt to do this, you get an error message. What could cause this
error?
A. One or more system List attributes still contains node13.
B. Veritas Cluster Server must be completely shut down on all nodes.
C. The LL T driver on node13 was not stopped.
D. The GAB daemon on node13 was not stopped.
Answer: A

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NO.6 what are two characteristics of a nard service group dependency? (choose two.)
A. Both parent and child groups fail over if a critical resource in the child group faults.
B. Only online local hard dependencies are supported.
C. If a critical resource in the parent group faults, the child group is taken offline before the parent group.
D. Bringing the parent online is allowed if the child is offline.
E. Only two parents and one child o group can be configured in a nard dependency.
Answer: A B

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NO.7 whicn feature of Veritas Cluster Server allows you to keep applications in separate groups while still
allowing control of the order they start?
A. service group dependencies
B. complementary events
C. replicated data clusters
D. notifications
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a characteristic of Veritas Cluster Server service group dependencies?
A. Each parent service group can link with only three child service groups; however, a child service group
is not limited to the number of links to parent service groups.
B. If a parent service group with an online local firm group dependency faults, it will take the
corresponding child
C. A child service group will remain online if the dependent parent service group with an online local firm
group dependency faults.
D. A service group cannot be a child service group if its parent service group is a child of another group.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You stopped Veritas Cluster Server on a system and completely removed the system from the Veritas
Cluster Server configuration. You now need to stop the GAB driver without shutting down the system.
Which command accomplishes this?
A. gabconfig-U
B. gabetl stop
C. gab-stop
D. gabdaemon uninstall
Answer: A

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NO.10 You have a three-system cluster.
The cluster runs an application that depends on a database.
The application and database do not need to run on the same system.
If the database faults, you want the application to continue to run, unless the database cannot be
restarted on another system. Which type of service group dependency do you create to ensure this
behavior?
A. online global son, where the database is the parent
B. online global soft, where the application is the parent
C. online global firm, where the application is the parent
D. online global firm, where the database is the parent
Answer: B

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NO.11 A legacy managed host is a system managed by Storage Foundation Management Server and runs
__ .
A. Storage Foundation 4.x
B. Foundation Suite 3.x
C. Storage Replicator 4.x
D. Veritas Enterprise Administrator 3.x
Answer: A

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NO.12 You need to remove the system named node04 from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster.
What is the command to failover any service groups running, then stop Veritas Cluster Server on that
system?
A. hastop -sys node04 -evacuate
B. haevac -remove -sys node04
C. haconf -stop -evac -sys node04
D. hasys node04 -local -failover -stop
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which two are valid settings for FailoverPolicy? (Choose two.)
A. priority
B. RoundRobin
C. Order
D. Failover
E. SystemUst
Answer: A B

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NO.14 A Veritas Cluster Server design calls for a failover database service group and a failover middleware
service group to be dependent on each other such that the database and middleware are always running
on the same system.
Which type of service group dependency satisfies this design requirement?
A. online local
B. online remote
C. online global
D. online together
Answer: A

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NO.15 What should be expected during a failover when a service group is partially ONLINE?
A. The service group will become fully ONLINE on the target system.
B. The service group will become partially ONLINE on the target system.
C. The service group will go OFFLINE and remain OFFLINE.
D. The service group will become OFFLINE temporarily on the target system.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which resource is NOT considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a service
group is online or not?
A. onOnly
B. OnOff
C. failover
D. parallel
Answer: A

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NO.17 You have a service group dependency:
If the child group faults, the parent group is taken offline. If the parent group faults, the child group remains
online. Which type of dependency is this an example of?
A. firm
B. hard
C. son
D. remote
Answer: A

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NO.18 You are adding a system named Systemc to an existing two-system cluster.
What must you do atter installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications on the
new system?
A. run hastart -newnode on the new system
B. run hasys -frorce System C on the new system
C. run haclus -adonode SystemC on any system
D. run hastart on the new system
Answer: D

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NO.19 What does the Veritas Cluster Server Cluster Manager Web Console require for high availability?
A. notification set to 0
B. a Microson Windows workstation
C. the vcsweb user account
D. a virtuallP address
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which network resource combination would you use for failovers of virtual IP addresses across
interfaces on a single system when NICs are connected to different subnets?
A. IP/NIC
B. IPMultiNIC/MultiNICA
C. IPMultiNICB/MultiNICB
D. IPMultiNICC/MultiNICC
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-095
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Technical Foundations: Security Solutions 1.0 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 207 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is the purpose of defining a technical standard?
A. to identify minimum system configuration requirements for assets
B. to define roles and responsibilities within an organization
C. to create documented exceptions or waivers to a policy
D. to implement the guidelines directed by management
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the primary purpose of change control in the context of security?
A. to apply changes that increase security posture
B. to prevent changes from decreasing security posture
C. to automatically apply security changes on a set schedule
D. to automatically undo changes that cause security problem
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator wants to identify and monitor systems with weak or static passwords. Which
Symantec solution can help collect this information?
A. Data Loss Prevention
B. Endpoint Protection
C. Critical System Protection
D. Control compliance Suite
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is a key benefit of integrating multiple security-related solutions?
A. automates administration across multiple security solutions
B. develops IT security policies across security solutions
C. consolidates critical data from separate security solutions
D. enforces user policies across unrelated security solutions
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are most organizations concerned with when looking at risk as it relates to impact on an asset?
A. downtime B: . revenue
C. response time
D. exposure
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a critical success factor when implementing workflow software?
A. It should work well with application integration software.
B. It should work well with web security software.
C. It should work well with bug tracking infrastructure.
D. It should work well with network access controls.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which Symantec solution can identify and block a malicious file from being downloaded in an HTTP
session?
A. Web Gateway
B. Brightmail Gateway
C. Network Access Control
D. Critical System Protection
Answer: A

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NO.8 An employee has installed a video game on their company-issued laptop. Which Symantec solution
can prevent this installation in the future?
A. Altiris IT Management Suite
B. Endpoint Encryption
C. Brightmail Gateway
D. Security Information Manager
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which type of attack would be most successful against the password T63k#s23A?
A. cross site scripting
B. brute-force
C. dictionary
D.SOL injection
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which challenge does security information and event management (SIEM) help solve for customers?
A. monitoring for performance problem on servers
B. monitoring configuration changes in applications
C. monitoring for business compliance issues
D. monitoring for security violations
Answer: D

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NO.11 How does a denial of service attack work?
A. It attempts to break the authentication mode.
B. It imitates the behavior of a valid user.
C. It cracks passwords, causing the system to crash.
D. It prevents a legitimate user from using a system or service.
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is a benefit of a security awareness program, according to the Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. It provides an understanding of current system security settings.
B. It allows the organization to understand where critical systems reside.
C. It provides an understanding of the operational costs of security.
D. It ensures that employees understand their roles and responsibilities.
Answer:

NO.13 Malware that contains a backdoor is placed on a system that will later be used by the cybercriminal to
gain access to the system. The cybercriminal was successful in which phase of the breach?
A: capture
B: discovery
C: incursion
D: exfiltration
Answer: C

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NO.14 What do software patches affect within a company's environment?
A. applications only
B. operating systems only
C. operating systems and applications only
D. operating systems. applications. and hardware configurations
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is one of the benefits of the assessment step within the security policylifecycle, according to the
Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. It provides the actionable configuration standards.
B. It allows organizations to understand where critical assets reside.
C. It educates the employees and manages the enforcement of a products.
D. It analyzes the policythrough interviews.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which two benefits does patch management provide an organization? (Select two.)
A. modifies usability or performance of a computer
B. removes vulnerabilities through software fixes
C. updates operating systems and ensures compliance
D. migrates the operating system
E. counts software licenses installed
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 What is the primary goal when creating a security products?
A. to assist in the compliance process
B. to ensure systems have updated patches
C. to protect information
D. to report on system configuration
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which WO topics did Art Gilliland state in the Security Solutions 1.0 course as areas that Symantec
plans to invest in? (Select WO.)
A. reputation-based security
B. identity management
C. cryptography
D. cross-product management and reporting
E. security of social networkinq sites
Answer: A,D

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NO.19 Which WO events could potentially be seen by a network monitoring solution in the context of
information protection? (Select WO.)
A. a program storing social security numbers in a SOL database
B. a hacker exfiltrating data out of an organization
C. a malicious insider emailing data out of an organization
D. an employee on their home ISP webmailing confidential data
E. an administrator incorrectly configuring email servers
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 How do the security program approaches rank in order from least mature to most mature?
A. compliance, risk, IT security
B. risk. compliance, IT security
C. IT security, compliance, risk
D. IT security, risk, compliance
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which type of breach source is Albert Gonzalez, as mentioned in the Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. well-meaning insider
B. malicious insider
C. cybercriminal
D. disgruntled employee
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which two questions are appropriate to ask a customer in order to uncover a need for Symantec
Control Compliance Suite? (Select two.)
A. Are you meeting your required backup windows?
B. Have you recently gone through a merger or acquisition, requiring new entitlements and controls?
C. Do you need to archive email for legal discovery purposes?
D. Is your operations team struggling to keep on top of IT audit-related tasks? DE. Do you need to ensure
critical servers are deployed by authorized personnel?
1linimize
Answer:

NO.23 What are traditional, definition-based malware scanning technologies unable to identify?
A. new or unique threats unless a sample has been submitted
B. older threats or threats that are inactive in the wild
C. polymorphic threats that have been discovered in an antivirus lab
D. threats that are written to temporary locations in storage
Answer:

NO.24 What is the primary benefit of a people-based workflow solution?
A. business process creation
B. centrally managed collaboration
C. coordination of web services
D. user-based task assignment
Answer: B

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NO.25 What should be in place before automatically blocking confidential data leaving the organization?
A. hard drive encryption
B. well-refined data loss policies
C. email message encryption
D. endpoint management software
Answer: B

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NO.26 A cybercriminal wants to break into an organization using a SOL injection attack. What will the
cybercriminal do to start the attack?
A. enter a command at a user prompt
B. locate a user input field on the company's web page
C. gain administrative access to the database
D. use SOL slammer malware
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which framework is used to manage change within an IT organization?
A. Management of Risk (MOR)
B. Information Technology Asset Management (IT AM)
C. Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)
D. Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (CobiT)
Answer: C

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NO.28 What does the Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (CobiT) framework focus
on, according to the Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. IT implementation life cycle
B. computer security concepts
C. international security procedures for audit
D. confidentiality. integrity, and availability
Answer: A

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NO.29 An employee's computer was recently infected by a virus due to opening an attachment received
through email. Which Symantec solution could have prevented this?
A. Brightmail Traffic Shaper
B. Brightmail Gateway
C. Network Access Control
D. Data Loss Prevention
Answer: B

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NO.30 customer is experiencing image-based spam and phishing attacks that are negatively impacting
messaging flow. Which Symantec solution should be recommended to this customer?
A. Brightmail Gateway
B. Endpoint Protection
C. Network Access Control
D. Backup Exec System Recovery
Answer: A

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NO.1 When implementing an automated response rule, what must be done to make the rule execute?
A. select Incident All and click the Response Rule button to execute
B. enable response rules from the Settings page
C. add the response rule to the appropriate policy
D. Automated response rules are effective as soon as they are created
Answer: C

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NO.2 Endpoint agents CANNOT monitor data copies to what?
A. CD/DVD
B. network shares
C. USB (for example, thumb drives)
D. printers/faxes
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the best method for deploying a policy to Endpoint agents that makes use of Index Matching.
A. create the policy using Described Content, then "and" the Index Matching statement into the policy
B. Policies that use Index Matching cannot be deployed to Endpoint agents.
C. create the policy using the Index Matching statement, then "and" a Described Content statement into
the policy
D. combine all Index Matching statements that are to be deployed to Endpoint agents into one single
policy
Answer: A

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NO.4 Symantec Data Loss Prevention can be configured to populate custom attributes pulled from a
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) server. In addition to LiveLdapLookup.properties, which
other file must be modified to configure custom attributes.?
A. Plugins.properties
B. Manager.properties
C. Jdbc.properties
D. Aggregator.properties
Answer: A

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NO.5 What needs to be done with unused Network Interface Cards (NIC) on the Enforce server?
A. They need to be configured to utilize Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
B. They need to be disabled.
C. They need to be configured with a static IP address.
D. They need to be assigned with 127.0.0.1 as their IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a best practice to be used for monitoring mail traffic in an environment that uses Transport
Layer Security (TLS) for their outbound email?
A. deploy Network Prevent for Email
B. turn TLS off on the outbound email server
C. import the TLS certificate from the outbound email server onto the Network Monitor detection server
D. Data Loss Prevention is not capable of viewing TLS traffic.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Network Prevent supports load balancing among multiple Prevent servers
in high volume networks. In the absence of a network load balancing device, what is the best practice for
enabling load balance among multiple Prevent servers?
A. enable Load Balancing in the Settings, Servers Overview page
B. In the case of Network Prevent for Email, the upstream MTA is configured with the IP address of each
Prevent server. This is done in a similar fashion for the web proxy server(s) with the IP address of each
Network Prevent for web server.
C. A third Network Interface Card (NIC) is required for each Prevent server to be used as a "heartbeat
monitor" to the other Prevent servers. Once installed and configured, the Prevent servers act as a virtual
cluster.
D. configure a DNS alias to point to the IP address of each Prevent server, also known as a DNS Round
Robin
Answer: D

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NO.8 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can use custom SSL certificates to secure communication between the
Endpoint server and Endpoint agents. What is the name of the tool that is used to create these
certificates?
A. endpointssl.exe
B. endpointkeytool.exe
C. sslkeytool.exe
D. endpointsslkey.exe
Answer: B

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NO.9 A user has determined that many incidents are showing 100 matches per incident from the default PCI
policy template. The user needs to increase this limit to better reflect the most critical files with the most
violations. Which change will increase the number of maximum matches per incident?
A. change the value for DI.MaxViolations
B. change the value for IncidentDetection.patternConditionMaxViolations
C. change the value for EDM.MaximumNumberOfMatchesToReturn
D. change the value for Incident Threshold within the relevant policy
Answer: A

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NO.10 If an Enforce server is configured to use Active Directory (AD) authentication for logins, which statement
is true?
A. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been assigned a role.
B. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been added to the
krb5.ini or krb5.conf file.
C. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as their Organizational Unit has been
assigned to a Policy Group.
D. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have a matching user name in
Enforce.
Answer: D

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