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Exam Code: HP2-K33
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Storage Solutions - Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 77 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which industry standard API mechanism for creating advanced web applications have
mainstream
web organizations like Google, Twitter, and Facebook adopted?
A. HTML
B. REST
C. SOAP
D. HTTPS
Answer: B

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NO.2 Many of your customers' storage systems are growing at over 50% per year. What is the
major
data protection issue with this level of data growth rate?
A. More operators are required to perform and manage backup
B. The backup window and SLAs are tending to remain the same
C. The bandwidth of typical remote office WANs is too small
D. The backup devices are not large enoughto hold the new data
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your enterprise customer is planning to build a virtualized Exchange 2010 system with
VMware.
They are considering VMware vMotion to help manage workload rebalancing across multiple
systems when adding storage capacity. What are key reasons why the customer should also
consider HP 3PAR Peer Motion? (Select two.)
A. HP 3PAR Peer Motion minimizes downtime through a central synchronized architecture that
provides mission critical availability.
B. HP 3PAR Peer Motion enables non-disruptive movement of data between multiple HP
StoreServ systems.
C. HP 3PAR Peer Motion uses a high performance Block Migration process that has been
optimized for HP ProLiant Gen8 servers.
D. HP 3PAR Peer Motion enables non-disruptive movement of data between HP 3PAR StoreServ
and any other 3rd party SAN environment
E. HP 3PAR Peer Motion can be combined with HP 3PAR Thin Persistence software to reduce
storage I/O and capacity requirements.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Analysts state that 50% of storage is connected to a virtual machine. What is a key implication
of
this fact for your sales campaigns?
A. It is too late to sell storage for virtualized servers to half the market.All sales campaigns should
focus on selling backup software to these clients
B. Users with traditional storage installations connected to virtual machines will be discovering the
limitations of their existing environments
C. The sales approach will be the same across the board - HP Converged Storage is the most
scalable and cost-effective platform for client virtualization
D. The only opportunity is to consider compliance needs with organizations that have already
onnected disk storage to virtual machines
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which HP service could you recommend to a customer that has selected their HP StoreAll
system
and arranged delivery?
A. HP Storage Modernization Service
B. HP Storage Impact Analysis Service
C. HP Storage Efficiency Analysis Service
D. HP Enterprise NAS Implementation Service
Answer: D

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NO.6 What does HP guarantee with HP 3PAR StoreServ that could help customers manage the
impact
of Microsoft Database Availability Groups?
A. a reduction in storage capacity requirements by 50%
B. a reduction in storage capacity requirements by 90%
C. a doubling in storage capacity requirements
D. a doubling in server density
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your customer will achieve which three principle business benefits by deploying HP StoreOnce
technology?
A. Eliminate OpEx costs, meet agreed business SLAs. and manage data growth
B. Save money, meet agreed business SLAs. and manage remote office backup
C. Reduce business risk, meet agreed business SLAs. and reduce backup costs
D. Reduce business nsk. meet compliance needs, and improve backup flexibility
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which group in customer organizations has proved to be the strongest advocate for client
virtualization programs and should be targeted to identify the potential storage needs of a client
virtualization project?
A. CFO and Finance team
B. CIO and senior IT management
C. IT operations team
D. End Users
Answer: B

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NO.9 Your customer's CIO is advocating a move to client virtualization. Which storage criterion is
NOT
relevant for a successful deployment?
A. Storage needs to be tailored to client visualization to deliver an effective ROI
B. Storage needs to be high performance
C. Storage needs to be highly available to meet client needs
D. Storage needs to be in a larger datacenter
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the power of HP StoreOnce deduplication and Catalyst technology?
A. It enables deduplication tasks to be distributed across the whole information protection
infrastructure including remote offices and the datacenter
B. It provides best in class deduplication in the main data center with 7x the backup performance
of the competition
C. It provides deduplication only at the application server which means application servers can be
restored rapidly
D. It works with HP Data Protector, which means it has an industry leadership position in
enterprise backup
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-B25
Exam Name: HP (HP LaserJet Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A customer needs assistance performing printer roller maintenance. What should you do?
A. Consult the User Guide for the specific procedure for each type of device and guide the customer
through the procedure
B. Schedule a service technician to help the customer if the customer is unsure of how properly
perform the procedure
C. Ask the customer to complete the steps in the Show Me demonstration of the Paper Jam
Fundamental course.
D. Consult the Quick Reference Topic Library available at the end of the Roller Maintenance
Fundamentals course.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Certpaper.com has purchased a LaserJet 2420 printer. The hardware installation has been
completed. Despite the presence of an HP black toner cartridge, when the printer is powered on it
gives the message "Install Black Toner". What is the issue?
A. DC controller needs to be replaced
B. printer has not been configured properly
C. toner is faulty and needs replacement
D. the grounding lever has become unhinged from the chassis
Answer: C

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NO.3 A jam code can locate a jam, and often identify the cause of the jams. What does the code
read in the paper path?
A. sensors
B. trays
C. flags
D. rollers
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are troubleshooting a non-functional printer and have identified and analyzed all
symptoms associated with the particular problem. What should you do next?
A. Determine and prioritize possible causes.
B. Narrow the symptoms to one critical area.
C. Identify a possible solution.
D. Develop an action plan for problem resolution.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Certpaper.com informs you that their Color LaserJet printer has a message on the control
panel that says "Order Magenta Cartridge". Why is the printer indicating this message?
A. This is a message indicating the Magenta cartridge is logging unrecoverable errors, and should be
changed as soon as possible.
B. The magenta cartridge is nearing the end of its useful life, but will continue to print based on
historical page coverage for this printer.
C. The cartridge will run out of magenta in two weeks and should be changed.
D. The internal clock has reached 6 months since the last cartridge change, and a new cartridge
should be ordered.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are comparing vector graphics to raster graphics. What are characteristics of vector
graphics? (Select three.)
A. Are difficult to resize
B. Result in relatively large files
C. Are used in CAD software
D. Treat lines, arcs, and circles as individual objects
E. Can be scaled without sacrificing quality
F. Have resolutions that are fixed regardless of the capacity of the output device
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.7 What is the first step in the color printing process?
A. The laser discharges certain areas on the OP
B. The OPC surface is charged.
C. The tone is developed into the OP
D. The formatter splits the print data into four color planes.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The Engine Test button is a part of which electronic component?
A. Formatter PCA
B. LVPS
C. HVPS
D. DC Controller
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-J60
Exam Name: HP (Designing HP SMB Storage Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 64 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which HP StoreVirtual feature is unique to the P4900 Storage System?
A. 8Gb FC node connectivity
B. support for Network RAID 5 only
C. SmartSSD Wear Gauge in CMC
D. support for hardware RAID 10
Answer: C

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NO.2 When designing a solution, what defines the maximum tolerable amount of data loss from an
IT service due toa major incident?
A. SLO
B. RTO
C. RPO
D. SLA
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which features would lead you to position an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 as a replacement for an
existing HP8100 Enterprise Virtual Array? (Select two.)
A. thin provisioning
B. seamless data migration
C. compatible replication protocol
D. faster disk spindle speeds
E. similar feature set
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 A consultant develops a storage concept for an SMB customer. To prepare the CxO
presentation, theconsultant must identify business and technical challenges. Which challenges
should be presented during ameeting with the CEO? (Select two.)
A. Data is not protected at the sufficient level.
B. Rack space is not used efficiently.
C. Cost of information is not defined.
D. Operational expenditures (OPEX) nave to be reduced.
E. Server provisioning takes too much time.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Your customer is a medium-sized insurance company. They have decided to build a redundant
vSphere 5.1infrastructure cluster with HP BladeSystem. As their consultant, you propose redundant
HP BladeSystemc7000 enclosures, Flex Fabric Interconnect modules, and four HP ProLiant BL660c
Gen8 Servers, with twodual port Flex-Fabric LOMs in a vSphere ESX 5.1 HA cluster.
Which components provide direct-attached storage for the virtual servers? (Select three.)
A. HP SmartArray P711m Controller
B. HP MSA P2000 G3 Combo
C. HP SmartArray P721m Controller
D. HP D6000 Disk Enclosures
E. HP 3 Gb/s SAS BL Switch
F. HP 6 Gb/s SAS BL Switch
Answer: C,D,F

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Explanation:
Up to six D6000 storage devices can be supported off a single BladeSystem enclosure for up to 1260
TB of capacity. End-to-end 6 Gb/s SAS connectivity enables a high performance storage solution
using an HP Smart Array P721m controller, 6 Gb/s SAS BL switches, and the D6000. 6 Gb/s host
connectivity enables higher performance, eases configuration/deployment and broadens supported
features of an D6000 using HP Smart Array P721m controller and 6 Gb/s SAS BL switches.

NO.6 An industry-leading insurance company in the UK has decided to build a redundant vSphere
5.1 infrastructurecluster with an HP BladeSystem and HP 3PAR StoreServ storage platform.
As their consultant, you proposeredundant HP BladeSystem c7000 Enclosures, FlexFabric
Interconnect modules, and four HP ProLiantBL660c Gen8 Servers, with two dual port Flex-Fabric
LOMs in a vSphere ESX5.1 HA cluster.
The supportdepartment needs to decrease the time of infrastructure management.
Which HP product provides hardware-level management for their HP server and storage solution?
A. HP System Insight Manager
B. Onboard Administrator
C. Integrated Lights Out
D. Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statements are true when zoning an HP MSA P2000 G3 FC array into a fabric? (Select
two.)
A. The array can be in multiple operating system zones.
B. Overlapping storage port zones may be configured
C. Zoning is required for all operating systems that access the array.
D. Zoning is not required for a single operating system.
E. The array required port-based zoning to be configured.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 A medium-sized manufacturing company decides to build a redundant vSphere 5.1
Infrastructure cluster withHP BladeSystem. As their consultant, you propose redundant HP
BladeSystem c7000 Enclosures for theirlocal and remote sites. The storage solution you propose is
an HP StoreVirtual 4000 with remote replication.
To stay within the budget, you decide to use the HP StoreVirtual VSA at the remote site.
Which feature of the VSA must you consider for future growth?
A. maximum 3 VSAs per site
B. maximum one LAN adapter per VSA
C. maximum one VSA per host
D. maximum 10 TB per VSA
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-N35
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP IT Service Management Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which challenge is faced by organizations dealing with asset management?
A. Individuals and organizations seek to create tools where each user can manually enter
configuration and asset data into a master database.
B. Individuals seek to patch virtual systems with KPI patches and report them back to the system.
C. Organizations seek to push KPI configuration files to the lowest levels in the organization, seeking
to bring transparency to the configurations of all virtual devices.
D. Individuals dealing with asset management seek to lower cost and demonstrate value to the
business.
Answer: D

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NO.2 According to research, what percentage of incidents in the result of improper change?
A. 15%
B. 44%
C. 80%
D. 98%
Answer: C

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NO.3 What percentage of asset cost is procurement, and what percentage is operational?
A. 4% is procurement, and 96% is operational.
B. 60% is procurement, and 40% is operational.
C. 96% is procurement, and 4% is operational.
D. 40% is procurement, and 60% is operational.
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.slideshare.net/hpsoftwaresolutions/how-it-asset-management-fits-withinblu
e-cross-blue-shield-of-floridas-service-asset-configuration-management-initiative(slide 8)
6. Which capabilities does the HP Service Manager offering provide to optimized the high cost of
service desk support? (Select two.)
A. Reduce the high volume of service desk interactions
B. Allows for the automation of manual help desk processes
C. Allows storage provisioning
D. Client OS migrations in both physical and virtual environments
E. Server installation for both physical and virtual environments
Answer: A,B

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7. Which question best summarizes the challenge faced by those who deliver service
management to an organization?
A. When is the appropriate time to test a virtual application?
B. How soon after discovery of delta data does a DDM-I database need a refresh?
C. Which KPIs need to be pushed down to the help desk staff after a virtual machine reload?
D. How do you optimize ITSM investments and the value delivered to the business?
Answer: C

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8. The "number and percentage of emergency changes" and "number and percentage of
unplanned changes detected" are examples of which metric?
A. Metrics are collected by the BSM suite and federated into the CCRM solution database(s)
B. KPIs that are collected by the CCRM solution
C. Capabilities of the BSA suite of products
D. Capabilities of storage automation solutions
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h41112.www4.hp.com/events/software-universe-2012 /pdf/SWU-Day-2-Improving
the-Quality-of-Service-and-Reduce-Risk.pdf

NO.4 According to HP , what is a market challenge faced by ITSM businesses?
A. Increase business and IT complexity
B. Application quality
C. The automated discovery of desktops
D. Automation of server (Server Automation)
Answer: A

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Reference:http://blogs.forrester.com/stephen_mann/12-12-24the_top_10_it_service_management
_challenges_for_2013_but_what_did_you_achieve_in_2012

NO.5 According to HP , which market challenges are faced by businesses as far as ITSM is concerned?
(Select two.)
A. Desktop installations
B. Server automation visibility
C. Cost-effective service delivery
D. Application performance maintenance
E. Getting the most from assets
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: HH0-440
Exam Name: Hitachi (Storage Architect - Performance and Virtualization)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A Microsoft Exchange administrator team is responsible for managing five mailbox servers and
maintaining acceptable service level objectives for your organization's email users. Accordingly, they
want to setup Windows Performance Monitor to actively monitor the Exchange servers. Which
Performance Monitor counter should be monitored for the Exchange database LUNs?
A. disk write bytes/second
B. disk read bytes/second
C. IO delays per sec
D. average disk read latency (ms)
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer reports OLTP database response times as measured by Oracle have tripled from 1 ms to 3
ms. Comprehensive data collection is present throughout the incident. Which three metrics are most
relevant? (Choose three.)
A. LDEV response time
B. LUN queue depth
C. port utilization (% Busy)
D. cache hit ratio
E. BED utilization
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 Which two Hitachi Professional Services are available for modular and enterprise performance
assessment and troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
A. Storage Platform Assessment (SPA)
B. Implementation Service for Hitachi Tuning Manager
C. Implementation Service for Hitachi Storage Services Manager Software
D. Tiered Storage Planning and Design Service
Answer:AB

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NO.4 Which VMware multi-pathing scheme should be used to avoid non-owning access with HDS modular
storage systems with multiple VMware servers?
A. Most Recently Used (MRU)
B. Fixed
C. Round-Robin
D. Extended Round-Robin
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three statements are true regarding Hitachi storage configurations for Microsoft Exchange
Server? (Choose three.)
A. RAID6 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
B. RAID1+0 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
C. RAID5 is the recommended RAID level for the log RAID Groups..
D. LUN concatenation (LUSE) is not recommended.
E. VDEV striping is a recommended configuration for database RAID Groups.
Answer: BDE

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NO.6 What happens when the Extended Round-Robin load balancing algorithm is used with an LDEV that
is executing only random type IOs?
A. Performance will be severely impacted.
B. Load balancing will be disabled for this LDEV.
C. Round-Robin will be used.
D. HGLAM will be notified of this inconsistency.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer reports erratic occurrences of concurrent slow downs involving multiple servers directly
attached to a large enterprise storage system. Each server supports an independent application and uses
dedicated port processors and RAID Groups. Storage replication, thin provisioning, and external storage
are used. If this problem originates in the storage, what are the two most likely causes? (Choose two.)
A. highly concurrent PAIRCREATE
B. storage system microcode problem
C. high internal path utilization
D. high cache Write Pending
Answer:AD

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NO.8 When planning for capacity growth and performance for a new application, which three metrics are
necessary to determine the required back-end storage configuration? (Choose three.)
A. anticipated read/write IOPS
B. cache read hit ratios
C. queue depths
D. transfer rates
E. IOPS per physical disk
Answer:ABE

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NO.9 A customer runs two geographical dispersed data centers and plans to merge both data centers' SANs.
Which three should be considered when planning the ISL installation and configuration? (Choose three.)
A. distance
B. ISL trunk setup/configuration
C. estimated throughput
D. fabric trunk setup/configuration
E. buffer credits
Answer: ABC

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Which three conditions are likely causes for the write pending rates illustrated in the exhibit? (Choose
three.)
A. insufficient cache
B. loss of redundancy in write cache
C. heavy random writes to RAID5
D. heavy random writes to SATA drives
E. failure to distribute workload among sufficient array groups
Answer: CDE

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NO.11 Which two statements are true about the Hitachi Tuning Manager Agent for RAID Product Interval (PI)
record type? (Choose two.)
A. Performance data is collected by the Agent Collector at specified intervals and summarized for every
hour/day/week/month/year.
B. Configuration data is collected by the Agent Collector at specified intervals and summarized for every
hour/day/week/month/year.
C. Performance Reporter can directly access Product Interval records through Hitachi Tuning Manager.
D. Product Interval.
Answer:AC

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NO.12 A customer is using Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP) on a Universal Storage Platform (USP) V
and runs an Oracle database on HDP Volumes allocated to a HDP Pool. The customer is experiencing
unexpected growth of the database and a lack of capacity in the HDP Pool. What should be done?
A. Build a new HDP Pool using the same disk and RAID type and migrate the DP-Volumes to the new
pool.
B. Build a new HDP Pool using any disk and any RAID type and migrate the DP-Volumes to the new pool.
C. Extend the existing HDP Pool with Pool Volumes using the same RAID and disk type.
D. Extend the existing HDP Pool with Pool Volumes using any RAID and disk type.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which HDS product is used to define and report Logical Group configurations?
A. Hitachi Tuning Manager
B. Hitachi Device Manager
C. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
D. Hitachi Storage Services Manager
Answer: B

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NO.14 A customer, which runs a large Web server farm as an Internet service and hosting provider, wants to
consolidate the data from all these servers from the internal server disks to an iSCSI SAN solution which
uses a Universal Storage Platform (USP) V as the storage system. The IO is generally random read in
small block size. Which two RAID Group configurations would you recommend for the USP V? (Choose
two.)
A. RAID1 2+2
B. RAID1 4+4 C. RAID5 7+1
D. RAID6 6+2
Answer: CD

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NO.15 Which three metrics aid in calculating how long a block of data remains available in cache after its last
access? (Choose three.)
A. IOPS rate into the cache partition or storage system
B. number of available cache segments
C. the cache hit rate
D. average response time
E. average LUN queue size
Answer: ABC

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NO.16 Performance monitor data indicates that CHP utilization may be causing a bottleneck in a Universal
Storage Platform (USP) series system during periods of intense processing. Which two actions should be
considered to increase IOPS during the bottleneck periods? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the paths using high-speed mode.
B. Spread the load across more CHP processors and paths.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer:AB

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NO.17 In IOSTAT, which two Solaris metrics are used to determine the average read block size to a device?
(Choose two.)
A. reads per second (r/s)
B. kilobytes read per second (kr/s)
C. block size (bs)
D. read block size (rbs)
Answer:AB

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NO.18 Which three actions will help to reduce the level of Write Pending data in cache during periods of
intense random update processing? (Choose three.)
A. Switch to faster disk drives.
B. Migrate from RAID5 to RAID1.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more ports.
E. Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer: ABC

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NO.19 To eliminate disk related performance issues, which three Hitachi Tuning Manager reports would be
most useful for analyzing Microsoft 2007 Exchange Storage Group LUN activity? (Choose three.)
A. RAID Map reports
B. RAID Group Configuration reports
C. RAID Group Utilization reports
D. Logical Device Response Time reports
E. Exchange MAPI Connection reports
Answer: ACD

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NO.20 When DB2 Deferred Write Threshold (DWT) is reached, high write activity occurs, this can degrade all
subsystems involved with the DB2 containers. Within the entire performance chain, which three
components are critical during these occurrences? (Choose three.)
A. host CPU
B. host memory
C. storage subsystem cache
D. storage subsystem front-end processors
E. storage subsystem disks
Answer: BCE

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Exam Code: HH0-050
Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Storage Technology)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which two cache partition management functions would a storage manager perform to
improve storage performance? (Choose two.)
A. Virtualize heterogeneous storage resources.
B. Adjust storage resources in response to business changes.
C. Dedicate storage resources to certain applications.
D. Duplicate storage resources within cache.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which two physical cable types does Ethernet use for transmitting data? (Choose two.)
A. firewire
B. 3-Phase
C. fiber optic
D. twisted pair
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which backup and recovery factor does RTO represent?
A. RTO measures how long it takes to resume essential operations.
B. RTO measures productivity lost in the event of an outage.
C. RTO measures loss of production permissible when resuming after a disruption.
D. RTO measures the financial loss incurred due to an outage.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer wants to replicate their database for the accounting and finance departments.
What is a benefit of accomplishing this with a clone replication technology?
A. It uses less storage than a snapshot copy.
B. It creates an exact copy of the database.
C. It identifies index corruption on the database.
D. It provides continuous data protection.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are two advantages of implementing a thin provisioning storage solution? (Choose two.)
A. It enables the logical partitioning of ports, cache and disks (parity groups).
B. Striping data across many spindles optimizes back-end performance.
C. Provisioning storage from a virtual pool improves storage utilization.
D. Large volume performance is increased because each parity group has a unique workload.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 When using IP to transfer data over a network, which protocol re-combines IP packets into the
correct order to re-create the message sent from the source?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. UDP
D. TCP
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are two strengths of implementing storage in a SAN compared to using DAS? (choose
two.)
A. It costs less than a DAS solution.
B. It facilitates data management.
C. It enables all applications to access all data.
D. It limits access to data to the owning server.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 What are three common network terms? (Choose three.)
A. LAN
B. DAS
C. ATA
D. node
E. WAN
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.9 Which term defines the shape of a network or the arrangement of devices on a network?
A. interface
B. topology
C. protocol
D. zone
Answer: B

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Exam Code: GB0-283
Exam Name: H3C (Constructing Enterprise-level Routing Networks)
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Total Q&A: 300 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 OSPF
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 BGP EBGP
A. BGP
B. BGP
C. BGP
D.
Answer: C

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NO.3 OSPF OSPF 0
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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NO.4 OSPF
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D

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NO.5 NBMA point-to-multipoint
A. NBMA point-to-multipoint
B. NBMA point-to-multipoint
C. NBMA point-to-multipoint PPP
D. NBMA full-meshed point-to-multipoint
Answer: D

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NO.6 1 NSSA RouterD ABR RouterD
ospf 1
area 0.0.0.1
network 10.45.0.0 0.0.0.255
nssa default-route-advertise
#
area 0.0.0.0
network 4.4.4.4 0.0.0.0
network 10.34.0.0 0.0.0.255
A. RouterD area1 7 LSA RouterE RouterF LSA
B. RouterD area1 5 LSA RouterE RouterF LSA
C. RouterC RouterD 5 LSA
D.
Answer: A

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NO.7 BGP
A. Origin
B. AS-Path
C. Next-hop
D. MED
E. Local-preference
F. Community
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 OSPF
A. stub networks
B. point-to-point
C. broadcast
D. point-to-multipoint
Answer: ABCD

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NO.9 OSPF
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.6
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 224.0.0.10
Answer: AB

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NO.10 A.
B. Route-policy
C.
D.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.11 OSPF
A. spf
B.
C.
D.
Answer: AD

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NO.12 OSPF
A. 88
B. 89
C. 179
D. 520
Answer: B

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NO.13 IPv4 IPv6
A. 128
B. 164
C. 64
D. 256
Answer: A

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NO.14 BGP
A. CIDR
B. BGP detail-suppressed
C. BGP network BGP
D. BGP import BGP
Answer: AB

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NO.15 OSPF IS-IS
A. TCP/IP
B.
C. AREA 0
D.
Answer: BD

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NO.16 IPSec Security Association
A. IPSec SA
B. SA IPSec
C.
D.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.17 A. WFQ CQ Tail Drop
B. WFQ ACL
C. CBWFQ WFQ WFQ
D. LLQ
Answer: D

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NO.18 OSPF RIPv2
A.
B.
C.
D. VLSM
Answer: D

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NO.19 OSPF Router ID
A.
B.
C. IP
D.
Answer: D

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NO.20 CAR IP IP CAR LR
T. True
F. False
Answer: T

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NO.21 BGP Speaker IBGP IGP AS-Path
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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NO.22 BGP aggregate 10.110.0.0 255.255.0.0 suppress-policy test
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C

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NO.23 OSPF cost
A. mtu
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C

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NO.24 QoS
A. QoS
B.
C. QoS
D. CBQ WRED
Answer: BD

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NO.25 Quidway OSPF
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Answer: B

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NO.26 OSPF stub
A. stub stub
B.
C. stub ASBR
D. stub type3 LSA
Answer: B

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NO.27 OSPF ASBR 192.168.0.0/24~192.168.3.0/24 4 ABR
192.168.0.0/22 ABR
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B

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NO.28 OSPF
A. ABR
B. ABR
C. ABR ASBR
D. ASBR
Answer: ABCD

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NO.29 OSPF
A. DV
B. SPF
C. HASH
D. 3DES
Answer: B

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Exam Code: FCNSA
Exam Name: Fortinet (fortinet certified network security administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which of the following are valid authentication user group types on a FortiGate unit? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Firewall
B. Directory Service
C. Local
D. LDAP
E. PKI
Answer: A, B, C, E

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NO.2 Which of the following items represent the minimum configuration steps an administrator must perform
to enable Data Leak Prevention from flowing through the FortiGate unit? (Select all that apply.)
A. Assign a DLP sensor in a firewall policy.
B. Apply one or more DLP rules to a firewall policy.
C. Enable DLP globally using the config sys dip command in the CU.
D. Define one or more DLP rules.
E. Define a DLP sensor.
F. Apply a DLP sensor to a DoS sensor policy.
Answer: ABDE

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NO.3 Which of the following statements regarding Banned Words are correct.? (Select all that apply.)
A. The FortiGate unit can scan web pages and email messages for instances of banned words.
B. When creating a banned word list, an administrator can indicate either specific words or patterns.
C. Banned words can be expressed as wildcards or regular expressions.
D. Content is automatically blocked if a single instance of a banned word appears.
E. The FortiGate unit includes a pre-defined library of common banned words.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.4 When creating administrative users, the assigned____________________ determines user rights on
the FortiGate unit.
Answer: access profile

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NO.5 If a FortiGate unit has a dmz interface IP address of 210.192.168.2 with a subnet mask of
255.255.255.0, what is a valid dmz DHCP accessing range?
A. 172.168.0.1-172.168.0.10
B. 210.192.168.3-210.192.168.10
C. 210.192.168.1 - 210.192.168.4
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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Exam Code: EX0-101
Exam Name: EXIN (ITIL Foundation V 3.0 & ITIL Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Consider the following list:
1. Change authority
2. Change manager
3. Change advisory board (CAB)
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?
A. Job descriptions
B. Functions
C. Teams
D. Roles, people or groups
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?
A. To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT services
B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
C. To create and populate a service catalogue
D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration
management?
A. Describes the topography of the hardware
B. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below
acceptable limits?
A. Service asset and configuration management
B. Event management
C. Service catalogue management
D. Problem management
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service request?
A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change
B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface
D. Any request for change (RFC) that is low-risk and which can be approved by the change manager
without a change advisory board (CAB) meeting
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which one of the following do major incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A. Definitive media library (DML)
B. Configuration management system (CMS)
C. Statement of requirements (SOR)
D. Standard operating procedures (SOP)
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter
Answer: C

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NO.10 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be
defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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Exam Code: EX0-104
Exam Name: EXIN (TMap Next Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test
specifications?
A. that the tests are reproducible
B. that the test specifications are transferable
C. that coverage of 100% is achieved
D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object
Answer: B

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NO.3 See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional
and non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things.
Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test
Answer: C

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NO.4 Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?
A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available
B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project
C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested
Answer: A

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NO.5 In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests
Answer: B

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